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MRCOG Question Paper, Paper 1, September 1997

Author: sajida, Posted on Friday, April 29 @ 03:35:49 IST by RxPG  

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MRCOG Part 1

1-The obturator artery
a-branches from post. trunk of the internal iliac artery
b-passes through greater sciatic foramen
c-is crossed by ureter
d-supplies the hip joint
e-may be replaced by a branch of superior epigastric artery

2-The spleen
a-has a notched posterior boarder
b-lies infront of costo-diaphragmatic recess
c-is in contact with the body of the pancreas
d-lies under the cover of the 9th to 11th ribs
e-is innervated from renal plexus

3-The following muscles are inserted into perineal body
a-bulbospongiosus
b-ischiocavernosus
c-obturator internus
d-sphincter ani externus
e-transverse perinei superficialis

4-The inferior vena cava
a-is formed at the level of 5th lumbar vertebra
b-commences post to rt. ext iliac artery
c-receives the left ovarian vein
d-receives the right renal vein
e-pierces the central tendon of diaphragm

5-The adult female urethra
a-is 7 cm in length
b-is lined with columnar epithelium in its proximal half
c-has mucus glands n its distal third
d-passes through the perineal memberane
e-is surrounded by smooth muscle in its middle third

6-In the normal human pelvis
a-the promontory of sacrum is in upper anterior border of the first sacral vertebra
b-anterior surface of the sacrum has five paired foramina
c-the joint between 2 pubic bones is a synovial joint
d-acetabular fossa is wholly formed from parts of the pubic and ischial bones
e-the tranverse diameter of the brim is greater than anteroposterior diameter

7-The left ureter in female
a-dev from an outgrowth of paramesonephric duct
b-when radiologically visualised runs along the tips of transverse process of lumbar vertebra
c-is narrowed in calibre as it crosses the pelvic brim
d-runs medial to ovary
e-lies anterior to vagina as it enters the trigone of bladder

8-Concerning the abdominal wall
a-the umbilicus is located in the territory of L1 dermatome
b-rectus abdominis muscle has attachments to ant wall of rectus sheath
c-left and right epigastric arteries anastomose
d-distended veins radiating from umbilicus are indicative of portal hypertension
e-Langer’s lines run vertically over the lower abdomen

9-The pituitary gland
a-lies below the diaphragm sellae
b-is dev from 2 primordia
c-communicates with hypothalamus
d-lies inferior to optic chiasma
e-is anterior to sphenoidal sinus

10-The obturator nerve
a- arises from segments L2,3,4
b-crosses the sacroiliac joint as it enters pelvis
c-innervates obturator internus
d-is a lateral relation of ovary
e-innervates the knee joint

11-Concerning cells
a-Glycosylation takes place in smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b-LDL attach to cell memberane receptors
c-Glycoproteins are present on cytosol surface of plasma memberane
d-centrioles are composed of tubulin
e-nuclear heterochromatin is genetically inactive

12-Following are derived from urogenital sinus
a-bladder trigone
b-ureters
c-female urethra
d-greater vestibular glands
e-paraurethral glands

13-Following statements concerning the uterus are correct
a-it is formed from mesonephric ducts
b-it has a lymphatic drainage in part to inguinal glands
c-Uterine artery pases below the ureter
d-uterine veins communicate with vescical venous plexus
e-pain sensation from the body of uterus is carried by pelvic splanchnic nerves

14-In fetal cardiovascular system
a-heart arises from endoderm
b-heart is formed by fusion of endocardial tubes
c-cardiac pulsation is present by 30th day after fertilisation
d-oxygenated blood is transferred to the left atrium through the foramen ovale
e-ductus arteriosus closes during the last 4 weeks of pregnancy

15-Concerning growth hormone
a-plasma levels are reduced by glucose infusion
b-maternal plasma levels are directly related to fetal growth
c-it is active on bone only until the epiphyses fuse
d-its secretion is controlled by hypothalamus
e-increased activity produces a positive nitrogen balance

16-Arginine Vasopressin
a-reduces GFR
b-controls water loss iin proximal renal tubule
c-is synthesised by post pituitary gland
d-is released in response to a rise in plasma osmolality
e- is released in response to a fall in circulating plasma volume

17-Parathyroid hormone
a-is a polypeptide
b-increases bone resorption
c-decreases phosphate excretion in urine
d-secretion is diminished by an increase in serum ionised calcium concentration
e-decreases the formation of 1,25 dihydroxy cholecalciferol

18-Renin
a-is secreted by zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex
b-is a proteolytic enzyme
c-is secreted at an increased rate if renal perfusion pressure falls
d-acts upon circulating angiotensinogen
e-is released in response to an increase in extracellular fluid volume

19-Aldosterone secretion is increased
a-on standing
b-following haemorrhage
c-durig pregnancy
d-by hypocalcaemia
e-on a low sodim diet

20-Insulin secretion is stimulated by
a-gastrin
b-noradrenalin( norepinephrine)
c-somatostatin
d-glucagon
e-arginine

21-Concerning thyroid hormone
a-Triiodothyronine is converted in tissues to thyroxine
b-the circulating conc of thyroid binding globulin increases in pregnancy
c-Triiodothyronine acts more rapidly than thyroxine
d-Starvation causes plasma triiodothyronine concentration to rise
e-D-thyroxine is more active than L-thyroxine


22-In the human testis
a-meiosis occurs between the early and late spermatid phases
b-one spermatogonium always forms 8 spermatids
c-fluid in seminiferous tubules contains high concentration of protein
d-process of spermatogenesis takes 34 days
e-inhibin is produced by primary spermatocytes


23-Sex hormone binding globulin
a-levels are increased in pregnancy
b-is the main binding protein for progesterone
c-levels are decreased during estrogen therapy
d-is the main binding protein for aldosterone
e-has a greater affinity than albumin for testosterone

24-Recognised features of congenital adrenal hyperplasia in the female are
a-acute hypotension
b-enlargement of clitoris
c-abnormal karyotype
d-hirsuitism
e-absent uterus

25-Adrenal androgens
a-are synthesised in zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex
b-are secreted in excessive amounts in presence of 11beta hydroxylase deficiency
c-stimulate protein synthesis
d-consist mainly of testosterone
e-are secreted in increased amounts in response to a rise in adrenocorticotrophic hormone

26-During pregnancy uterine decidua synthesises
a-HCG
b-prostaglandin E2
c-progesterone
d-prolactin
e-oxytocin

27-Calcitonin
a-is synthesised in parathyroid gland
b-is a decapeptide
c-secretion is increased at serum calcium levels below 1.5 mmol/l( 6.1 mg/100ml)
d-inhibits bone resorption
e-increases renal tubular excretion of calcium

28-Following cell types are present in human corpus luteum
a-endothelial cells
b-macrophages
c-pericytes
d-fibroblasts
e-granulosa cells

29-Concerning ovarian functions
a-Progesterone is a major steroid of the developing follicles
b-Granulosa cells secrete estradiol
c-estradiol is derived from androgen precursors
d-insulin like growth factor( IGF-1) is not secreted by ovary
e-circulating inhibin concentrations are a marker of granulosa cell function

30-Folowing organisms are gram positive
a-Streptococcus pneumoniae
b-N. gonorrhoeae
c-Salmonella typhi
d-Lactobacillus
e-Pseudomonas Aeuroginosa

31-Toxic shock syndrome in women is
a-associated with use of tampons
b-due to toxigenic strain of streptococcus
c-a consequence of previous antibiotic therapy
d-infrequently reported outside North America
e-confined to sexually active women

32-Concerning Rubella
a-It has a incubation period of 7-10 days
b-Recurrent infection is a common cause of congenital malformation
c-specific antibodies occur with in 14 days of infection
d-individuals are infectious before the appearance of rash
e-An attenuated live virus vaccine is used in immunisation

33-Actinomyces Israelii
a-is a rickettsia
b-forms yellow granules in pus
c-is a commensal in mouth
d-is a commensal in vagina
e-is usually resistant to penicillin

34-Disease caused by spirochaetes include
a-Weil’s disease
b-Lymphogranuloma venereum
c-pinta
d-Vincent’s angina
e-Bilharzia

35-Mycobacterium tuberculosis
a-is the only mycobacterium which is acid fast
b-provokes humoral immunity
c-does not form spores
d-is a motile bacillus
e-produces endotoxins

36-Candida albicans
a-is gram positive
b-is a commensal in bowel
c-is sensitive to miconazole
d-causes sec. infection after t/t with broad spectrum antibiotics
e-is cultured on alkaline media

37-Following antibiotics act on bacterial cell walls
a-Penicillin
b-ceftazidime
c-metronidazole
d-clindamycin
e-gentamycin

38-Listeria mnocytogenes
a-can grow at 6 degree centigrade
b-isa gut commensal
c-is a gram negative bacillus
d-infection is best treated with benzylpenicillin
e-is a cause of septicaemia in neonates

39-Metronidazole
a-is effective against giardia lamblia
b-is effective when administered per rectum
c-should not be administered intravenously
d-is usually effective against Entamoeba histolytica
e-interferes with ethanol metabolism

40-Gentamicin
a-is ineffective systemically when given by mouth
b-is metabolised prior to excretion
c-may cause damage to the 8th cranial nerve
d-is a bacteriostatic drug
e-toxicity ispotentiated by frusemide

41-Effectiveness of combined oral contraceptive may be reduced by
a-bromocriptine
b-phenytoin
c-rifampicin
d-ampicillin
e-sodium valproate

42-Following agents are bronchodilators
a-salbutamol
b-atenolol
c-prostaglandin F2 alpha
d-morphine
e-prednisolone

43-Neostigmine in therapeutic doses
a-acts for several days
b-inhibits hydrolysis of acetyl choline
c-causes paralytic ileus
d-reverse the action of carbachol
e-relieves the effects of myasthenia

44-Halothane produces
a-cardiac arrhythmias
b-explosive mixtures with air
c-liver damage if given repeatedly
d-myometrial relaxation
e-bronchial irritation

45-Following substances increase the serum uric acid concentration
a-colchicine
b-chlorothiazide
c-allopurinol
d-probenecid
e-phenylbutazone

45-Therapeutic effect of first drug is enhanced by
a-phenytoin:ethinyl estradiol
b-bromocriptine:metoclopramide
c-penicillin:probenecid
d-ritrodine:dexamethasone
e-warfarin:phenobarbitone

46-In a sample of 1000 children, birth wt. was normally distributed with a mean of 3.5 kg and a standard deviation 700 g
a-15 infants would be below 5th centile for weight
b-standard error of birth weight would be about 22 g
c-95 th centile for birth wt. would be 4.2 kg
d-no baby would weigh less than 1.4 kg
e-median birth wt. would be about 3.5 kg

47-In a statistical analysis of any group of numerical observations
a-mean is always less than mode
b-median value lies at the mid point of the range
c-standard deviation is always greater than standard error of mean
d-standard error of mean is independent of total no. of observations
e-there are the same no. of observations greater than and less than median value.

48-In a randomised double blind trial comparing a new drug with a placebo
a-patients will be taking either of the 2 active drugs
b-patients can choose their method of t/t
c-doctors prescribing t/t decide which p/t take the new drugs
d-a large trial is more likely to give a statistically significant result than a small trial
e-half of the patients will take the new drug

49-In a trial of oral hypoglycaemic agents,42 p/t were given drug A and 38 drug B. Blood glucose conc were measured before and after a single dose of the drug.Drug B apparently caused a greater fall in blood glucose concentrations( P=0.06)
a-These results reach an accepted level of statistical significance
b-Non parametric statistical analysis should be used if data are not normally distributed
c-In biological terms drugs A and B have been shown to be equally effective
d-6% more patients responded to drug A than B
e-Unequal numbers in the two groups invalidate the trial

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