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AIIMS May 2005 Question Paper

Author: AIIMS, Posted on Tuesday, May 17 @ 07:41:11 IST by RxPG  

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AIIMS

1. The ideal place to record temperature in dead body is from
1. Axilla
2. Groin
3. Rectum
4. Mouth
2. Diffusion of oxygen at the tissue level is affected in all the following poisonings, except
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Curare
3. Phosgene
4. Cyanides
3. Posmortem caloricity may be seen in all the following causes of death except
1. Septicemia
2. Barbiturate poisoning
3. Strychnine poisoning
4. Tetanus
4. When a group of muscles of a dead body were in state of strong contraction immediately prior to death and remain so even death, the condition is termed as
1. Gas stiffening
2. Rigor mortis
3. Cadaveric spasm
4. Cold stiffening
5. ‘Patterned’ abrasion is variety of
1. Linear abrasion
2. Pressure abrasion
3. Sliding abrasion
4. Superficial bruise
6. All of the following are features of absence seizures except
1. Usually seen in childhood
2. 3 – Hz spike wave in EEG
3. Postictal confusion
4. Precipitation by hyperventilation
7. A continuous murmur is heard in all of the following conditions except
1. Ventricular septal defect with aortic regurgitation
2. Patent ductus arteriosus
3. Coronary arteriovenous fistula
4. Venous hum
8. Infliximab is directed against
1. Tumor necrosis factor - a (TNF - a)
2. Interleukin – 1 (IL – 1)
3. Interleukin – 12 (IL – 12)
4. Intercellular adhesion molecule (ICAM)
9. All of the following statements about HRT (hormone replacement therapy) are true except
1. It increases the risk of coronary artery disease
2. It increases bone mineral density
3. It increases the risk of breast cancer
4. It increases the risk of Endometrial cancer
10. In which of the following arthritis erosions are not seen
1. Rheumatoid arthritis
2. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
3. Psoriasis
4. Gout

11. Flapping tremors are seen in the following conditions except
1. Uremic encephalopathy
2. Parkinsonism
3. Hepatic encephalopathy
4. Carbon dioxide narcosis
12. All of the following are true regarding Tetralogy of Fallot except
1. Ejection systolic murmur in second intercostals space
2. Single second heart sound
3. Predominantly left to right shunt
4. Normal jugular venous pressure
13. Which one of the following is not a feature of irritable bowel syndrome
1. Abdominal pain
2. Constipation
3. Rectal bleeding
4. Bloating
14. In which of the following conditions of malabsorption, an intestinal biopsy is diagnostic
1. Celiac disease
2. Tropical sprue
3. Whipple’s disease
4. Lactose intolerance
15. All of the following are calcium channelopathies, except
1. Episodic ataxia – 1
2. Spinocerebellar ataxia – 6
3. Familial hemiplegic migraine
4. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis
16. Deficiency of enzyme a - keto acid decarbodylase leading to a block in the metabolism of branch amino acids is observed in
1. Maple syrup urine disease
2. Hartnup’s disease
3. Alkaptonuria
4. Phenylketonuria
17. The following are indications for post operative radiotherapy in a case of carcinoma endometrium except
1. Myometrial invasion of more than half thickness
2. Positive lymph nodes
3. Endocervical involvement
4. Tumor positive for estrogen receptors
18. Which of the following drug is contraindicated to treat hypertension with pregnancy
1. Enalapril
2. Methyldopa
3. Nifedipine
4. Labetolol
19. All of the following can cause DIC during pregnancy except
1. Diabetes mellitus
2. Amniotic fluid embolism
3. Intrauterine death
4. Abruptio Placentae
20. Use of oral contraceptives decreases the incidence of all of the following except
1. Ectopic pregnancy
2. Epithelial ovarian malignancy
3. Hepatic adenoma
4. Pelvic inflammatory disease
21. The best time to do chorionic villous sampling is
1. Between 6 – 8 weeks
2. Between 7 – 9 weeks
3. Between 9 – 11 weeks
4. Between 11 – 13 weeks
22. In a young female of reproductive age an absolute contraindication for prescribing oral contraceptive pills is
1. Diabetes
2. Hypertension
3. Obesity
4. Impaired liver function
23. All of the following are biochemical markers included for triple test except
1. Alfa feto protein (AFP)
2. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
3. Human placental Lactogen (HPL)
4. Unconjugated oestriol
24. In a young female of reproductive age with regular menstrual cycles of 28 days ovulation occurs around 14th day of periods. When is the first polar body extruded
1. 24 hrs prior to ovulation
2. Accompanied by ovulation
3. 48 hours after the ovulation
4. At the time of fertilization
25. When does switch – over from fetal to adult hemoglobin synthesis begin
1. 14 weeks gestation
2. 30 weeks gestation
3. 36 weeks gestation
4. 7 – 10 days postnatal
26. Which of the following is the most common pure malignant germ cell tumor of the ovary
1. Choricarcionma
2. Gonadoblastoma
3. Dysgerminoma
4. Malignant teratoma
27. During laparoscopy the preferred site for obtaining cultures in a patient with acute pelvic inflammatory disease is
1. Endocervix
2. Pouch of Douglas
3. Endometrium
4. Fallopian tubes
28. The risk of complex hyperplasia of endometrium with atypia progressing to malignancy in a postmenopausal women is about
1. 3%
2. 8%
3. 15%
4. 28%
29. At weeks gestation, amniocetesis reveals a D OD 450 of 0.20 which is at the top of third zone of the liley curve. The most appropriate management of such a case is
1. Immediate delivery
2. Intrauterine transfusion
3. Repeat Amniocentesis is after 1 week
4. Plasmaphresis
30. At what value of one hour glucose challenge test will you recommend a standard glucose tolerance test
1. 120 mg/dl
2. 140 mg/dl
3. 150 mg/dl
4. 160 mg/dl
31. In the perspective of the busy life schedule in the modern society, the accepted minimum period of sexual cohabitation resulting on offspring for a couple to be declared infertile is
1. One year
2. One and a half year
3. Two years
4. Three years
32. Which of the following is the drug of choice for chemotherapylaxis of cholera
1. Tetracycline
2. Doxycycline
3. Furazolidone
4. Co – trimoxazole
33. Characteristics of an ideal candidate for Copper – T insertion include all of the following except
1. Has borne at least one child
2. Is willing to check IUD tail
3. Has a history of ectopic pregnancy
4. Has normal menstrual periods
34. Which of the following statements is true about BCG vaccination
1. Distilled water is used as diluent for BCG vaccine
2. The site for injection should be cleaned thoroughly with spirit
3. Mantoux test becomes positive after 48 hours of vaccination
4. WHO recommends Danish 1331 strain for vaccine production
35. The most common cause of maternal mortality in India is
1. Toxaemias
2. Puerperal sepsis
3. Hemorrhage
4. Abortion
36. Which one of the following pulses has the highest content of Iron
1. Bengal gram
2. Black gram
3. Red gram
4. Soya bean
37. Human Development Index is measured by all except
1. Under five mortality
2. Life expectancy at birth
3. Literacy
4. Per capita income
38. In reference to Mycoplasms, the following are true except
1. They are inhibited by penicillins
2. They can reproduce in cell free media
3. They have an affinity for mammalian cell membranes
4. They can pass through filters of 450 nm pore size
39. A 30-year-old patient presented with features of acute meningoencephalitis in the casualty. His CSF on wet mount microscopy revealed motile unicellular micro – organisms. The most likely organism is
1. Naegleria flowleri
2. Acanthamoeba castellani
3. Entamoeba histolytica
4. Trypanosoma cruzi
40. The following methods of diagnosis utilize labeled antibodies except
1. ELISA (Enzyme Linked immunosorbent Assay)
2. Haemagglutination inhibition test
3. Radio immunoassay
4. Immunofluorescence
41. A 3-weeks old child presented to the pediatrician with meningitis. A presumptive diagnosis of late onset of a perinatal infection was made. The CSF culture was positive for gram positive bacilli. Which of the following characteristic of this bacteria would be helpful in differentiating it form other bacteria agents
1. Ability to grow on Blood agar
2. Ability to produce catalase
3. Fermentative attack on sugars
4. Motility at 250C
42. Reduvid bug is a vector for the transmission of
1. Relapsing fever
2. Lyme’s disease
3. Scrub typhus
4. Chaga’s disease
43. All of the following are a part of the innate immunity except
1. Complement
2. NK cells
3. Macrophages
4. T cells
44. The following statements are true regarding Chlamydia except
1. Erythromycin is effective therapy of Chamydial infections
2. Their cell wall lacks a peptidoglycan layer
3. Then can grow in cell free culture media
4. They are obligate intracellular bacteria
45. The following is the etiological agent of Rocky mountain spotted fever
1. Rickettsia rickettsii
2. Rochalimaea Quintana
3. Ickettsia tsutsugamushi
4. Coxiella burnetii
46. Which one of the following statement is not true about NSAIDS
1. Acetyl salicylic acid is an irreversible inhibitor of COX enzyme
2. Salicylic acid reduces in vivo synthesis of prostaglandins
3. Duration of action of aspirin is primarily related to the pharamacokinetic clearance of the drug from the body
4. Antiplatelet effect of low – dose aspirin is related to presystemic COX inhibition
47. Resistance to zidovudine due to
1. Mutations at reverse transcriptase
2. Increased efflux of the drug from inside the cell
3. Increased metabolism of the drug
4. Decreased zidovudine 5 triphosphate formation
48. Which one of the following is not an alpha – adrenoceptor agonist
1. Clonidine
2. Methyldopa
3. Guanabenz
4. Guanfacine
49. All of the following are the indications for use of ACE inhibitors, except
1. Hypertension
2. Mycoardial infarction
3. Left Ventricular Dysfunction
4. Pheochromocytoma
50. Which of the following is the drug of choice for Syndrome of Inappropriate Secretion of Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH)
1. Demeclocycline
2. Vasopressin
3. Thiazide diuretic
4. Chlorproamide
51. DeQuervain’s disease classically affects the
1. Flexor pollicis longus and brevis
2. Extensor carpiradialis and extensor pollicis longus
3. Abductor pollicis longus and brevis
4. Extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus
52. In trigger finger the level of tendon sheath constriction is found at the level of
1. Middle phalanx
2. Proximal interphalnangeal joint
3. Proximal phalanx
4. Metacarpo – phalangeal joint
53. Intraspecies competition is the competition among
1. Species
2. Individual of a population
3. Individual of a community
4. Populations and their regulatory factors
54. Heberden’s nodes are found in
1. PIP joints in osteoarthritis
2. DIP joints in osteoarthritis
3. PIP joints in rheumatoid arthritis
4. DIP joints in rheumatoid arthritis
55. What is pathognomonic feature of rheumatoid arthritis
1. Rheumatoid factor
2. Rheumatoid nodule
3. Morning stiffness
4. Ulnar drift of fingers
56. Otoacoustic emissions arise from
1. Inner hair cells
2. Outer hair cells
3. Both inner and outer hair cells
4. Organ of Corti
57. A laryngocoele arises from the
1. True vocal cord
2. Subglottis
3. Saccule of the ventricle
4. Anterior commissure
58. The tissue of origin of the Kaposi’s sarcoma is
1. Lymphoid
2. Vascular
3. Neural
4. Muscular
59. Which focal length in the objective piece of microscope is commonly used for ear surgery
1. 100 mm
2. 250 mm
3. 450 mm
4. 950 mm
60. Which one of the following statements truly represents Bell’s paralysis
1. Hemiparesis and contralateral facial nerve paralysis
2. Combined paralysis of the facial, Trigeminal, and abducens nerves
3. Idiopathic ipsilateral paralysis of the facial nerve
4. Facial nerve paralysis with a dry eye
61. All of the following are mediators of inflammation except
1. Tumor necrosis factor - a (TNF - a)
2. Interleukin – 1
3. Myeloperoxidase
4. Prostaglandins
62. For which one of the following tumors Gastrin is a biochemical marker
1. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
2. Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor
3. Pheochromocytoma
4. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor
63. Which one of the following bone tumors typically affects the epiphysis of a long bone
1. Osteosarcoma
2. Ewing’s sarcoma
3. Chodroblastoma
4. Chondromyxoid fibroma
64. All of the following hereditary conditions predispose to CNS tumors, except
1. Neurofibromatosis 1 & 2
2. Tuberous sclerosis
3. Von – Hippel – Lindau syndrome
4. Xeroderma pigmentation
65. All of the following clinicopathologic features are seen more often inseminomas as compared to nonseminomatous germ cell tumors of the testis except
1. Tumors remain localized to testis for a long time
2. They are radiosensitive
3. They metastasize predominantly by lympatics
4. They are often associated with raised levels of serum AFP and HCG
66. Which one of the following is not a non – metastatic complication of malignancies
1. Cushing’s syndrome
2. Cerebral cortical degeneration
3. Cerebellar degeneration
4. Polymyositis
67. Complications of lobar pneumonia do not include
1. Lung abscess
2. Amyloidosis
3. Suppurative arthritis
4. Infective endocarditis
68. Hemolytic anemia may be characterized by all of the following except
1. Hyperbilirubinemia
2. Reticulocytosis
3. Hemoglobinuria
4. Increased plasma haptoglobin level
69. Which of the following is the most common type of pituitary adenoma
1. Thyrotropinoma
2. Gonadotropinoma
3. Prolactinoma
4. Corticotropinoma
70. Recurrent facial / oropharyngeal / laryngeal edema in a patient has low C4, normal C3 and normal factor B. The pathogenesis is most likely due to
1. Immune complex disease
2. C1 esterase inhibitors deficiency
3. Hereditary deficiency of C2
4. Classical pathway activation by IgM
71. Which of the following conditions leads to tissue hypoxia without alteration of oxygen content of blood
1. CO poisoning
2. Met Hb
3. Cyanide poisoning
4. Respiratory acidosis
72. The hypersensitivity reaction involved in the hyper acute rejection of renal transplant is
1. Type I
2. Type II
3. Type III
4. Type IV
73. Cell type which lacks HLA antigen is
1. Monocyte
2. Thrombocytes
3. Neutrophil
4. Red blood cell
74. The intrapleural pressure is negative both during inspiration and expiration because
1. Intrapulmonary pressure is always negative
2. Thoracic cage and lungs are elastic structures
3. Transpulmonary pressure determines the negativity
4. Surfactant prevents the lungs to collapse
75. Exercise is also prescribed as an adjuvant treatment for depression. Most probably it acts by
1. Increasing pulse pressure
2. Improving hemodynemics
3. Raising endorphin levels
4. Inducing good sleep
76. Synaptic potentials can be recorded by
1. Patch clamp technique
2. Voltage clamp technique
3. Microelectrode
4. EEG
77. The ECG of a 40-year-old male was recorded using standard bipolar limb leads. The sum of voltages of the three standard leads was found to be 5 millivolts. This indicates
1. A normal heart
2. Right ventricular hypertrophy
3. Left ventricular hypertrophy
4. Increased cardiac muscle mass
78. The velocity of blood is maximum in the
1. Large veins
2. Small veins
3. Venules
4. Capillaries
79. Which of the following methods is not used for measurement of body fluid volumes
1. Antipyrine for total body water
2. Insulin for extra cellular fluid
3. Evans blue for plasma volume
4. 125I – albumin for blood folume
80. There is mutation of gene coding for the ryanodine receptors in malignant hyperthermia. Which of the following statements best explains the increased heat production in malignant hyperthermia
1. Increased muscle metabolism by excess of calcium ions
2. Thermic effect of food
3. Increased sympathetic discharge
4. Mitochondrial thermogenesis
81. Group A nerve fibers are most susceptible to
1. Pressure
2. Hypoxia
3. Local anaesthetics
4. Temperature
82. Phantom limb sensations are best described by
1. Weber Fechner law
2. Power law
3. Bell – Magendie law
4. Law of projection
83. A 16-year-old male is found to have a mental age of 9 years on I.Q. testing. He has
1. Mild mental retardation
2. Moderate mental retardation
3. Severe mental retardation
4. Profound mental retardation
84. A 50-year-old male presents with a 3 year history of irritability, low mood, lack of interest in surroundings and general dissatisfaction with disruption in his sleep or appetite. He is likely to be suffering from
1. Major depression
2. No psychiatric disorder
3. Dysthymia
4. Chronic fatigue syndrome
85. A 25-year-old woman complains of intense depressed mood for 6 months with inability to enjoy previously pleasurable activities. This symptom is know as
1. Anhedonia
2. Avolition
3. Apathy
4. Amotivation
86. Which of the following is an alternative to methadone for maintenance treatment of opiate dependence
1. Diazepam
2. Chlordiazepoxide
3. Buprenorphine
4. Dextropropoxyphene
87. All are adulterants of heroin, except
1. Chalk powder
2. Quinine
3. Charcoal
4. Fructose
88. Which of the following is not an opioid peptide
1. b - Endorphin
2. Epinephrine
3. Leu5 – enkephalins
4. Met5 – enkephalin
89. Investigation of choice for detection and characterization of interstitial lung disease is
1. MRI
2. Chest X-ray
3. High resolution CT scan
4. Ventilation perfusion scan
90. A 40-year-old female patient on long term steroid therapy presents with recent onset of severe pain in the right hip. Imaging modality of choice for this problem is
1. CT scan
2. Bone scan
3. MRI
4. Plain X-ray
91. Which of the following techniques is the best for differentiating recurrence of brain tumour from radiation therapy induced necrosis
1. MRI
2. Contrast enhanced MRI
3. PET scan
4. CT scan
92. Which of the following is the most common cause of mixed cystic and solid supracellar mass seen on cranial MR scan of a 10 years old child
1. Pituitary Adenoma
2. Craniopharyngioma
3. Optic chiasmal glioma
4. Germinoma
93. Which of the following is the most common cause of sclerotic skeletal metastasis in female patient
1. Carcinoma breast
2. Carcinoma ovary
3. Endometrial carcinoma
4. Melanoma
94. Lung to lung metastasis is seen in
1. Adenocarcinoma of lung
2. Squamous cell carcinoma of lung
3. Small cell carcinoma
4. Neuroendocrine tumor of lung
95. Which of the most common site of metastatic disease
1. Lung
2. Bone
3. Liver
4. Brain
96. Which of the following is the most radiosensitive tumour
1. Ewings tumour
2. Hodgkin’s disease
3. Carcinoma Cervix
4. Malignant fibrous histocytoma
97. WHO Ladder is for the rational titration of
1. Oral analgesia
2. Chemotherapy
3. Radiotherapy
4. Antidepressants
98. All of the following conditions are observed in Marasmus, except
1. Hepatomegaly
2. Muscle wasting
3. Low insulin levels
4. Extreme weakness
99. Which of the following is known as the “guardian of the genome”
1. p53
2. Mdm2
3. p14
4. ATM
100. Chemotherapeutic drugs can cause
1. Only necrosis
2. Only apoptosis
3. Both Necrosis and apoptosis
4. Anoikis



101. The most common side – effect of chemotherapy administration is
1. Nausea
2. Alopecia
3. Myelosuppression
4. Renal distinction
102. Which of the following has a normal level of alpha fetoprotein value in serum
1. Ovarian dysgerminoma
2. Hepatoblastoma
3. Embryonal carcinoma
4. Yolk sac tumor
103. Chronic adrenal insufficiency is characterized by all of the following except
1. Excess pigmentation
2. Asthenia
3. Weight gain
4. Hypoglycemic episodes
104. All of the following conditions are observed in Gout, except
1. Uric acid nephrolithiasis
2. Deficiency of enzyme Xanthine oxidase
3. Increase in serum urate concentration
4. Renal disease involving interstitial tissues
105. Painless sudden visual loss is seen in all except
1. CRAO
2. Retinal detachment
3. Vitreous hemorrhage
4. Angle closure glaucoma
106. In which of the following conditions Berlin’s edema is seen
1. Open angle glaucoma
2. After cataract surgery
3. After concussional trauma
4. Diabetic retinopathy
107. Magnification obtained with direct ophthalmoscope for an emmetropic patient is
1. 5 times
2. 10 times
3. 15 times
4. 20 times
108. Which laser is used in the management of after cataracts
1. Argon
2. Krypton
3. Nd – YAG
4. Excimer
109. In human corneal transplantation, the donor tissue is
1. Synthetic polymer
2. Donated human cadaver eyes
3. Donated eyes from live human beings
4. Monkey eyes
110. The Conversion of CO2 and H2O into Carbonic acid during the formation of Aqueous humour is catalysed by which one of the following enzymes
1. Carboxylase
2. Carbamylase
3. Carbonic anhydrase
4. Carbonic deoxygenase
111. Which of the following best defines the “Saccade”
1. Voluntary slow eye movements
2. Involuntary slow eye movement
3. Abrupt, involuntary slow eye movements
4. Abrupt, involuntary rapid eye movements
112. A Wathin’s tumour is
1. An adenolymphoma of parotid gland
2. A pleomorphic adenoma of the parotid
3. A carcinoma of the parotid
4. A carcinoma of submandibular salivary gland
113. Which of the following statements best represents Ludwig’s angina
1. A type of coronary artery spasm
2. An infection of the cellular tissues around submandibular salivary gland
3. Oesophageal spasm
4. Retropharyngeal infection
114. Which of the following best represents ‘ranula’
1. A type of epulis
2. A thyroglossal cyst
3. Cystic swelling in the floor of mouth
4. Forked uvula
115. Complication of total thyroidectomy include all except
1. Hoarseness
2. Airway obstruction
3. Hemorrhage
4. Hypercalcemia
116. The most common site of intestinal obstruction in gallstone ileus is
1. Duodenum
2. Jejunum
3. Ileum
4. Sigmoid colon
117. Carcinod syndrome produces valvular disease primarily involving
1. Pulmonary valves
2. Tricuspid valves
3. Mitral valve
4. Aortic valve
118. The gastroduodenal artery is derived from
1. Celiac artery
2. Hepatic artery
3. Splenic artery
4. Cystic artery
119. Meckel’s diverticulum is a remnant is
1. Stenson’s duct
2. Wolffian duct
3. Mullerian duct
4. Vitellointestinal duct
120. The molecule, which is the initiator of cataract formation in the eye lens and whose 1-phosphate derivative is responsible for liver failure, is
1. Sorbitol
2. Mannitol
3. Inositol
4. Galactitol
121. Nelson’s syndrome is most likely seen after
1. Hypophysectomy
2. Adrenalectomy
3. Thyroidectomy
4. Orchidectomy
122. Treatment of choice for medullary carcinoma of thyroid is
1. Total thyroidectomy
2. Partial thyroidectomy
3. I131 ablation
4. Hymithyroidectomy
123. Which one of the following is the earliest manifestation of Cushing’s syndrome
1. Loss of diurnal variation
2. Increased ACTH
3. Increased plasma cortisol
4. Increased urinary metabolities of cortisol
124. Thoracic extension of cervical goiter is usually approached through
1. Neck
2. Chest
3. Combined cervico – thoracic route
4. Thoracoscopic
125. Multiple submusocal neuromas is most likely associated with
1. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
2. Ovarian carcinoma
3. Testicular teratoma
4. Pancreatic beta cell carcinoma
126. The most common cancer, affecting both males females of the world is
1. Cancer of the pancreas
2. Buccal mucosa cancer
3. Lung cancer
4. Colo – rectal cancer
127. Which of the following is not an indication for cholecystectomy
1. 70-year-old male with symptomatic gallstones
2. 20-year-old male with sickle cell anaemia and symptomatic gallstones
3. 65-year-old female with a large gallbladder polyp
4. 55-year-old with an asymptomatic gallstones
128. The initial investigation of choice for a post cholecystectomy biliary stricture is
1. Ultrasound scan of the abdomen
2. Endoscopic cholangiography
3. Computed tomography
4. Magnetic resonance cholangiography
129. The treatment of choice for an 8 mm retained common bile duct (CBD) stone is
1. Laparoscopic CBD exploration
2. Percutaneous stone extraction
3. Endoscopic stone extraction
4. Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
130. Which of the following does not occur in a patient with gastrinoma
1. Epigastric pain
2. Diarrhoea
3. Basal acid output (BAO) less than 15 mEq/litre
4. Serum gastrin level > 200pg/ml
131. The most appropriate drug for treatment of bulimia nervosa is
1. Amitriptyliine
2. Lithium
3. Fluoxetine
4. Sertraline
132. D-dimer is the most sensitive diagnostic test for
1. Pulmonary embolism
2. Acute pulmonary oedema
3. Cardiac tamponade
4. Acute myocardial infarction
133. Which of the following drugs can be safely prescribed in pregnancy
1. Warfarin
2. ACE inhibitor
3. Heparin
4. Beta – Blocker
134. The best possible intervention for acute myocardial infarction is
1. Streptokinase
2. Streptokinase and aspirin
3. Early primary coronary intervention
4. Streptokinase and heparin
135. Which of the following lymphomas is associated with HTLV- I virus infection
1. Burkitt’s lymphoma
2. B – cell lymphoma
3. Adult T- cell leukemia and lymphoma
4. Hodgkin’s disease
136. Which one of the following disease is an autosomal dominant disorder
1. Hemochromatosis
2. Phenylketonuria
3. Maturity onset diabetes of the young
4. Glucose – 6 – phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
137. Which one of the following is not a feature of multiple myeloma
1. Hypercalcemia
2. Anemia
3. Hyperviscosity
4. Elevated alkaline phosphatse
138. Which of the following antiretroviral drugs is a non – nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
1. Zidovudine
2. Efavirenz
3. Saquinavir
4. Stavudine
139. All of the following are causes of microvesicular fatty liver except
1. Reye’s syndrome
2. Obesity
3. Acute fatty liver pregnancy
4. Valproic acid
140. Which of the following is not a precipitating factor for hepatic encephalopathy in patients with chronic liver disease
1. Hypokalemia
2. Hyponatremia
3. Hypoxia
4. Metabolic acidosis
141. The following cardiac defects are characterized by ductus dependent blood flow except
1. Transposition of great arteries with intact septum
2. Interrupted aortic arch
3. Truncus arteriosus
4. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
142. Which of the following syndromes is best associated with congenital heart disease
1. Lesch – Nyhan syndrome
2. Rasmussen syndrome
3. Holt – Oram syndrome
4. LEOPARD syndrome
143. Which of the following would be the plasma osmolality of a child with plasma Na+ 125 mEq/ 1,glucose of 108 mg/dl, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 140 mg/dl
1. 300 mosm / kg
2. 306 mosm / kg
3. 312 mosm / kg
4. 318 mosm / kg
144. Epiglottitis in a 2 year old child occurs most commonly due to infection with
1. Influenza virus
2. Staphlococcus aureus
3. Hemophilus influenzae
4. Respiratory syncytial virus
145. Which one of the following is the leading cause of mortality in under five children in developing countries
1. Malaria
2. Acute lower respiratory tract infections
3. Hepatitis
4. Prematurety
146. Dengue shock syndrome is characterized by the following except
1. Hepatomegaly
2. Pleural effusion
3. Thrombocytopenia
4. Decreased hemoglobin
147. Characteristic radiological feature of transient tachypnoea of newborn is
1. Reticulogranular appearance
2. Low volume lungs
3. Prominent horizontal fissure
4. Air bronchogram
148. Which mechanism in phototherapy is chiefly responsible for reduction in serum bilirubin
1. Photo – oxidation
2. Photo – isomerization
3. Structural isomerization
4. Conjugation
149. Which of the following is the most common inherited malignancy
1. Infant leukemia
2. Retinoblastoma
3. Wilm’s tumor
4. Neuroblastoma
150. Which of the following is true of mumps
1. Salivary gland involvement is limited to the parotids
2. The patient is not infectious prior to clinical parotid enlargement
3. Meningoencephalitis can precede parotitis
4. Mumps orchitis frequently leads to infertility
151. A patient was administered apidural anaesthesia with 15 ml of 1.5% Lignocaine with adrenaline for hernia surgery. He developed hypotension and respiratory depression with in 3 minutes after administration of block. The most common cause would be
1. Allergy to drug administered
2. Systemic toxicity to drug administered
3. Patient got vasovagal shock
4. Drug has entered the sub arachnoid space
152. The drug which is not suitable for patients with acute porphyria for intravenous induction is
1. Thiopentone sodium
2. Propofol
3. Midazolam
4. Etomidate
153. Which one of the following device provides fixed performance oxygen therapy
1. Nasal cannula
2. Ventimask
3. O2 by T- piece
4. Edinburgh mask
154. All of the following drugs are recommended for treatment of beta blocker induced excessive bradycardia and/or decrease in cardiac output, except
1. Dopamine
2. Dobutamine
3. Glucagon
4. Calcium chloride
155. The physiologic dead space is decreased by
1. Upright position
2. Positive pressure ventilation
3. Neck flexion
4. Emphsema
156. Which one of the following local anaesthetics is highly cardio – toxic
1. Lignocaine
2. Procaine
3. Mepivacaine
4. Bupivacaine
157. Sodium nitroprusside infusion may result in
1. Hypertension
2. Pulmonary oedema
3. Cyanide Toxicity
4. Heart block
158. The most common rhythm disturbance during early postoperative period is
1. Bradycardia
2. Ventricular fibrillation
3. Tachycardia
4. Complete heart block
159. The most common cause of morbidity and mortality in patients undergoing major vascular in patients undergoing major vascular surgery is
1. Renal complication
2. Thrombo embolic phenomenon
3. Coagulopathies
4. Cardiac complication
160. What is the most acute effect of smoking cessation
1. Shift of oxhyemoglobin curve to the right
2. Increased ciliary function
3. Decreased mucous production
4. Decreased incidence of post operative pneumonia
161. Sensory fibers from the taste buds in the hard and soft palate travel along
1. Trigeninal nerve
2. Facial nerve
3. Glossopharyngeal nerve
4. Vagus nerve
162. The ducts of all the following glands consist of stratified cuboidal epithelium except
1. Sweat glands
2. Sebaceous glands
3. Salivary glands
4. Pancreas
163. Neuro – epithelial type of sensory receptors are present in the following system except
1. Visual
2. Auditory
3. Gustatory
4. Olfactory
164. All of the following arteries are common sites of occlusion by a thrombus except
1. Anterior interventricular
2. Posterior interventricular
3. Circumflex
4. Marginal
165. The neck of pancreas is related on its posterior surface to
1. Gastroduodenal artery
2. Superior mesenteric vein
3. Inferior vena cava
4. Bile duct
166. The palatine tonsil receives its arterial supply from all of the following except
1. Facial
2. Ascending palatine
3. Sphenopalatine
4. Dorsal lingual
167. Compression of a nerve within the carpal tunnel produces inability to
1. Abduct the thumb
2. Adduct the thumb
3. Flex the distal phalanx of the thumb
4. Oppose the thumb
168. In a foetus the insulin secretion begins by
1. 3rd month
2. 5th month
3. 7th month
4. 9th month
169. Deep inguinal ring is a deficiency in the
1. Internal oblique muscle
2. Transverse abdominis muscle
3. Internal spermatic fascia
4. Transversalis fascia
170. The following statements are true regarding the SA node except
1. Is located at the right border of the ascending aorta
2. In contains specialized nodal cardiac muscle
3. It is supplied by the atrial branches of the right artery
4. It initiates cardiac conduction
171. The direction of flow of venous blood in conditions of valve incompetence affecting perforating veins of lower limb is
1. Along gravity
2. Superficial to deep
3. Along osmotic gradient
4. Deep to superficial
172. Which of the following hormones is an example of a peptide hormone
1. Parathormone
2. Adrenaline
3. Cortisol
4. Thyroxine
173. Alpha – fetoprotein in maternal serum and/or amniotic fluid is increased in all except
1. Fetal neural tube defects
2. Down’s syndrome
3. Anencephaly
4. Encephalocoele
174. Which of the following is not a transport or binding protein
1. Erythropoietin
2. Ceruloplasmin
3. Lactoferrin
4. Transferrin
175. Autoimmunity can be caused due to all of the following except
1. The presence of forbidden clones
2. Expression of cryptic antigens
3. Negative selection of T – cells in the thymus
4. Inappropriate expression of the MHC proteins
176. All of the following enzymes are active within cell except
1. Trypsin
2. Fumerase
3. Hexokinase
4. Alcohol dehydrogenase
177. Membrane fluidity is increased by
1. Stearic acid
2. Palmitic acid
3. Cholesterol
4. Linoleic acid
178. Which one of the following statements regarding pre – post clinical trial is most appropriate
1. They cannot be randomized
2. They are useful in studies involving mortality
3. They use of the patient as his or her own control
4. They are usually easier to interpret than the comparable parallel clinical trial
179. Mean and standard deviation can be worked out only if data is on
1. Interval / Ratio Scale
2. Dichotomous scale
3. Nominal scale
4. Ordinal scale
180. For a negatively skewed data mean will be
1. Less than median
2. More than median
3. Equal to median
4. One
181. Which of the following is the national level system that provides annual national as well as state level reliable estimates of fertility and mortality
1. Civil Registration System
2. Census
3. Adhoc Survey
4. Sample Registration System
182. National Family Health survey has successfully completed
1. One round
2. Two rounds
3. Three rounds
4. Four rounds
183. The following is true about prevalence and incidence
1. Both are rates
2. Prevalence is a rate but incidence is not
3. Incidence is a rate but prevalence is not
4. Both are not rates
184. The age and sex structure of a population may be described by a
1. Life table
2. Correlation coefficient
3. Population pyramid
4. Bar chart
185. The rate adjusted to allow for the age distribution of the population is
1. Perinatal mortality rate
2. Crude mortality rate
3. Fertility rate
4. Age – standardized mortality rate
186. A one day census of inpatients in a mental hospital could
1. Give good information about the patients in that hospital at that time
2. Give reliable estimates of seasonal factors in admissions
3. Enable us to draw conclusions about the mental hospitals of India
4. Enable us to estimate the distribution of different diagnosis in mental illness in the local area
187. If the prevalence is very low as compared to the incidence for a disease, it implies
1. Disease is very fatal and/or easily curable
2. Disease is non – fatal
3. Calculation of prevalence & incidence is wrong
4. Nothing can be said, as they are independent
188. After applying a statistical test, an investigation gets the ‘p’ value as 0.01. It means that
1. The probability of finding a significant difference is 1%
2. The probability of declaring a significant difference, when there is truly no difference, is 1%
3. The difference is not significant 1% times and significant 99% times
4. The power of the test used is 99%
189. A bacterium can divide every 20 minutes. Beginning with a single individual, how many bacteria will be there in the population if there is exponential growth for 3 hours
1. 18
2. 440
3. 512
4. 1024
190. The carrying capacity of any given population is determined by its
1. Population growth rate
2. Birth rate
3. Death rate
4. Limiting resource
191. Which one of the following is characteristic of a single exposure common vehicle outbreak
1. Frequent secondary cases
2. Severity increase with increasing age
3. Explosive
4. Cases occur continuously beyond the longest incubation period
192. A 10-year-old school girl has recurrent episodes of boils on the scalp. The boils subside with antibiotic therapy but recur after some time. The most likely cause of the recurrences is
1. Primary immunodeficiency syndrome
2. Juvenile diabetes mellitus
3. Peiculosis capitis
4. HIV infection
193. A 6-month-old infant presented with multiple papules and exudative lesions on the face, scalp, trunk and few vesicles on the palms and soles for 2 weeks. His mother had history of itchy lesions. The most likely diagnosis is
1. Scabies
2. Infantile eczema
3. Infantile seborrhoeic dermatitis
4. Impetigo contagiosa
194. A 27-year-old male had burning micturition and urethral discharge. After 4 weeks he developed joint pains involving both the knees and ankles, redness of the eye and skin lesions. The most probable clinical diagnosis is
1. Psoriasis vulgaris
2. Reiter’s syndrome
3. Behcet’s syndrome
4. Sarcoidosis
195. “Pinch” purpura diagnostic of
1. Primary systemic amyloidosis
2. Secondary systemic amyloidosis
3. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
4. Drug induced purpura
196. A 25-year-old male had pigmented macules over the palm, sole and oral mucosa. He also had anemia and pain in abdomen. The most probable diagnosis is
1. Albright’s syndrome
2. Cushing’s syndrome
3. Peutz – Jegher’s syndrome
4. Incontinentia pgimenti
197. Which one of the following is the treatment of choice for Kawasaki’s disease
1. Cyclosporine
2. Dapsone
3. Intravenous Immunoglobulin
4. Methotrexate
198. Migratory necrolytic erythema is seen in
1. Glucaganoma syndrome
2. Peutz – Jeghers syndrome
3. Sarcoidosis
4. Amyloidosis
199. Which one of the following is the treatment of choice for Dermatitis Herpetiformis
1. Corticosteroids
2. Dapsone
3. Methotrexate
4. Retinoids
200. Cerminous glands presents in the ear are
1. Modified eccrine glands
2. Modified apocrine glands
3. Mucous gland
4. Modified holocrine glands



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