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AIIMS PG Entrance December 1999 Question Paper

Author: ramesh, Posted on Thursday, November 20 @ 00:00:00 IST by RxPG  

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1. After spinal POP Cast for 2 days, patient presents with profuse bilious vomiting. Probable diagnosis a.duodenal obstruction b.acute gastric dilatation c.reflex vomiting d. peritonitis

2. Commonest cause of loss of vision in non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy is
a. vitreous hemorrhage b.macular edema c.traction on retina d.subretinal hemorrhage

3. Not true about retinitis pigmentosa is a.genetic predisposition b.early diagnosis can prevent the progression c.associated with systemic manifestations d.loss of visual acuity is a late feature

4. The most widely used drug for acute angle closure glaucoma a.timolol b. pilocarpine
c.lansoprost d.bromiridine 0.2%

5. A patient came to the casualty with acute bronchial asthma after treatment for glaucoma. The probable drug may be
a.timolol b.betaxolol
c.natoprost d.anticholineesterase

6. In a child with retinoblastoma, which of the following is not a common finding in the Xray
a.intraorbital calcification
b.intracerebral calcification
c.multiple cranial deposits
d.widening of optic foramen

7. A 35 year old man complains of difficulty of near vision. His distant vision was 6/6 without glasses. On retinoscopy, he had +2 DSph. bilaterally. The diagnosis is
a.presbyopia b.ciliary spasm
c.hypermetropia d.accomodative paralysis

8. A 40 year old lady presented with a history of seeing colored haloes in the evening. On examination, her intraocular pressure was normal.The diagnosis is
a.prodromal stage of acute congestive glaucoma
b.acute attack of acute congestive glaucoma
c.incipient stage of chronic congestive glaucoma

9. A man with painless sudden loss of vision. On examination, a cherry red spot was seen in the fundus and there was a cardiac murmur. The probable diagnosis is
c.anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
d.thrombophlebitis due to SABE

10. Which of the following is not correctly matched
a.ECHO-hemorrhagic conjunctivitis
b.CMV-retinitis, esophagitis in immunocompromised
c.marburg-hemorrhagic fever

11. Medusa lock appearance in Xray is seen in
a.ascariasis b.tapeworm
c.hookworm d.ascaris and tapeworm

12. The stool of a patient was examined under the microscope and some ova were found. After concentration in saturated saline, and on re-examination, ova were not seen. The diagnosis is
a.necator b.tenia
c.trichuris d.enterobius

13. The most unlikely manifestation of polio-myelitis is
a.paralysis improves upto 6 months
b.increased DTR with preserved sensation
c.symmetric descending paralysis with preserved DTR
d.fever for 2 days and paralysis after 6 weeks

14. In the overhead tank of a hostel, cysts of entameba were found. The best method of disinfection is
a.ultraviolet radiation b.boiling
c.iodination d.chlorination

15. A man from Delhi went to Bangladesh and stayed there for 2 days. On return, he developed diarrhea and abdominal pain. The stools showed clumps of pus cells and many RBCs. The probable pathogen is
c.salmonella d.shigella dysenteriae

16. Which is not true about shigella
a.associated with HUS
b.large number of pathogens needed for infection
c.elaboration of exotoxin related to manifestation of pathology

17. The following is true about nematode
a.few organisms can cause clinical features
b.ascaris penetrates skin
c.strongyloides leads to recurrent urticaria
d.ancylostomal egg ingestion leads to autoingestion

18. Which of the following is not transmitted during pregnancy
a.hepatitis B b.candida albicans
c.polio d.toxoplasmosis

19. A 2 yr old child presented with a membrane in the mouth. Within 24 hrs a culture report is needed. The preferred medium is
a.blood agar b.loeffler's serum slope
c.lowenstein jensen d.tellurite

20. For P.falciparum resistance to chloroquine, the drug of choice for presumptive treatment is
a.chloroquine only b.chloroquine+primaquine
c.sufadoxine + pyrimethamine

21. LGV is caused by
a.chlamydia trachomatis b.donovania granulomatis
c.H ducreyi

22. Condyloma lata is seen in
a.primary syphilis b.secondary syphilis
c.congenital syphilis d.late syphilis

23. The response to treatment in syphilis is assessed commonly using

24. The incubation period of pertussis is
a.within 7 days b.7-14 days
c.15-28 days d.>28 days

25. All are found in congenital rubella except
a.deafness b.blindness
c.IUGR d.renal anomalies

26. Atavism is when a child resembles his
a.parents b.grandparents
c.cousin d.twin

27. Thrombocytopenia in an infant is seen in
a.autoimmune b.allo(iso)immune
c.preeclampsia d.SLE

28. A child has several petechiae and severe bruising, the most unlikely diagnosis is
a.bleeding into joints
b.ITP is the most probable diagnosis
c.increased megakaryocytes in bone marrow
d.80% cases improve within 5-8 weeks

29. A 3 yr old child presented with generalized edema, marked decrease in urinary output, BP 100/75 mm Hg, protein +++ , no RBC or WBC. Hyaline cast +. Which of the following is true?
a.selective proteinuria b.increased blood urea
c.complement is lowered
d.increase in plasma volume

30. A child presents with 2 episodes of hematuria at the times of respiratory infections. There are two similar episodes in the past. Which of the following is false.
a.in 50% focal segmental and membranoproliferative changes are seen
b.increasing renal damage after each episode
c.complement level usually normal
d.ASO titre does not usually increase after hematuria

31. Which of the following is not true regarding abdominal mass in a child
a.hepatic mass is present in more than 50% neonates
b.60% of older children have malignant masses
c.neuroblastoma and neproblastoma are common malignancies
d.USG is very useful in neonates

32. A 3 month old breast fed infant presents with jaundice since birth, light stools and urobilin absent in urine. The likely diagnosis is
a.Extra hepatic biliary atresia b.hemolysis
c.breast milk jaundice d.thalassemia

33. A 10 year old female who used to use the swimming pool regularly, comes with a three day history of vomiting, fever and abdominal pain. On examination, abdominal tenderness and guarding are present. The liver dullness is not obliterated, Likely diagnosis is
a.gangrenous intussusception b.perforation
c.spontaneous biliary peritonitis d.primary peritonitis

34. Rotavirus diarrhea is diagnosed by
a.ELISA for antigen in stool
b.ELISA for antigen in blood
c.immunofluorescence for antigen in stool

35. 6 year old Arun participated in an icecream eating competition and developed bloating, diarrhea and moderate dehydration. He used to get similar episodes on consuming ice cream and milk in the past. The likely diagnosis is
a.lactase deficiency b.sucrase deficiency

36. A two year old child was brought to the OPD by his parents with complaints of ‘not eating anything’. On examination her weight is 11.5kg(50th percentile of normal) and height 75 percentile of normal. Management is
a.advise multivitamin tonic b.force to eat
c.investigate for UTI
d.ask parents to stop worrying

37. EBV does not cause
a.IMN b.Burkitt’s lymphoma
c.carcinoma cervix d.nasopharyngeal carcinoma

38. Swelling at the root of nose in a 2 year old child which is compressible is
a.meningomyelocele b.ethmoid cyst
c.caroticocavernous aneurysm d.lacrimal duct cyst

39. A 3 month old infant was brought with complaints of profuse lacrimation. On pressure pus exudes from the puncta. The best line of management is
a.dacryocysorhinostomy b.syringing
c.massaging of sac with antibiotics
d.syringing and probing

40. True about IHPS is all except
a.males commonly affected
b.commonly presents at 3-8 weeks
c.Xray shows gastric dilation and gasless small int.
d.USG is of no use in diagnosis

41. Double bubble appearance and bilious vomiting is diagnostic of
a.duodenal atresia b.pyloric stenosis
c.meconium ileus

42. A premature infant born at 32 weeks of gestation developed respiratory distress after 4 hrs of birth. The X-ray showed ground glass appearance with air bronchogram, the probable diagnosis is
a.meconium aspiration b.hyaline membrane

43. The most common cause of shock in fracture of 10 to 12th ribs is
a.aortic tear b.injury to abdominal solid viscera
c.damage to intercostal arteries

44. Orchidectomy is done in all except
a.male breast cancer b.prostatic carcinoma
c.tuberculous epididymoorchitis d.sertoli cell cancer

45. A 55 year old male patient presents with low back ache and urinary obstruction. Additional investigation includes
a.alkaline phosphatase b.acid phosphatase

46. A patient presented with perineal heamatoma and urinary retention following an accident, which of the following is not included in the orders
a.IVP b.digital per-rectal examination
c.indwelling catheter d.i.v.fluids

47. Male presents with abdominal pain. On examination, there is tender guarding in the right iliac fossa. What will you not advise
a.nil orally b.i.v.dextrose
c.pethidine i.v. d.plain Xray abdomen

48. A patient presents with abdominal pain radiating to the back. Acute pancreatitis is suspected. Which is not a prognostic indicator
a.hypocalcemia b.hyperglycemia
c.hyperamylasemia d.increased LDH

49. A 26 year old male with a history of going to a party on the night before, developed abdominal pain radiating to the back. On examination, he is apprehensive with pulse 100 per minute and BP 110/60. The diagnosis is
a.acute pancreatitis b.acute cholecystitis
c.acute diverticulitis d.acute appendicitis

50. Mallory Weiss tear involves
a.lower third of esophagus
b.gastroesophageal junction
c.upper third of esophagus

51. In carcinoma colon C2 refers to involvement of
a.mucosa only b.serosa
c.serosa with lymph node d.hepatic metastases

52. The best investigation for involvement of renal vein by renal cell carcinoma is
a.USG b.CT c.IVP d.color doppler

53. Which should be done in fracture of cervical spine
a.stabilize the cervical spine
b.intubate the patient
c.turn head from side to side to check for fracture

54. Following thyroidectomy, a 50 year old female developed bleeding. The most hazardous complication is
a.respiratory obstruction b.recurrent laryngeal palsy
c.dysphagia d.hypotension

55. Man sustained an injury with loss of skin cover exposing bone of 10 x 10 cm. The best treatment is
a.full thickness graft b.pedicle graft

56. A 75 year old male with adenocarcinoma of the left descending colon presented to the Casualty with acute abdominal obstruction. The best treatment is
a.Hartmann’s operation b.defunctioning colostomy
c.left hemicolectomy

57. The deformity in anterior dislocation of the hip is
a.flexion, adduction, internal rotation
b.flexion, abduction, external rotation
a.flexion, adduction, external rotation
a.flexion, abduction, internal rotation

58. A 70 year old man involved in a Road traffic accident two weeks back and now on traction for pelvic fracture presents with dyspnea, hemoptysis and chest pain. The most likely diagnosis is
a.pulmonary embolism b.ARDS
c.CCF d.sepsis

59. A 10 year old child presents with limping and hip pain and on examination showing limitation on internal rotation and abduction in flexion. The diagnosis is
a.perthe’s disease b.TB hip
c.JRA d.septic arthritis

60. The most serious compliction in posterior dislocation of the knee is
a.popliteal artery occlusion b.sciatic nerve injury
c.compartment syndrome due to occlusion
d.damage to femoral nerve

61. A 2 day old child presenting with weak Moro reflex of the right upperlimb with intact grasp reflex. On examination there is limitation of abduction, external rotation of arm and supination of forearm. The most likely nerve to be injured is
a.C8, T1 b.C5, C6 c.C1,C2 d.C7,C8

62. The correct choice regarding age group for various tumors is
a.chondrosarcoma in 1st decade
b.multiple myeloma in 5th decade and above
c.osteosarcoma in 5th decade
d.osteoclastoma in 6th decade

63. A 10year old child presents with bone pain of two weeks duration. On examination there is anemia and hepatosplenomegaly. The X-ray showed chalky bones and multiple fractures with osteomyelitis. The likely diagnosis is
a.osteopoikilosis b.osteopetrosis
c.myoisitis ossificans progressiva

64. Which among the following benefits from cervical sympathectomy
a.Sudeck’s dystrophy b.compound palmar ganglion
c.osteoarthritis of first MCP joint
d.de quervain’s tenosynovitis

65. A line drawn from the ischial tuberosity to the anterior superior iliac spine normally touches the greater trochanter. This line is called
a.Perkin’s line b.Nelaton’s line
c.Shoemaker’s lien d.Von Rosen’s line

66. The most common cause of Volkmann’s ischemic contracture in children is
a.lateral condylar # b.supracondylar#
c.both bone fracture d.olecranon #

67. The most common cause of urinary retention at 10 weeks of pregnancy is
a.fibroid b.ovarian cyst
c.RV gravid uterus d.pyelonephritis

68. USG is diagnostic in all except
a.hydatidiform mole b.anencephaly
c.Down syndrome d.placenta previa

69. Oligohydramnios is seen in
a.esophageal atresia b.neural tube defect
c.renal agenesis d.anencephaly

70. Alpha feto protein is raised in which ovarian tumor
a.dysgerminoma b.teratoma
c.choriocarcinoma d.endodermal sinus tumor

71. The cause of theca lutein cyst in hydatidiform mole is
a.raised hCG b.raised estradiol
c.raised progesterone d.human placental lactogen

72. A woman, G2 P1 , presents with 10 wks gestation and history of DVT in the previous pregnancy in puerperium. The management includes all except
a.heparin to be started immediately
b.warfarin to be continued 6 wk after delivery
c.risk of thrombosis recurring is 10-12%
d.no anticoagulant needed in antenatal period

73. In a newly married woman with rheumatic heart disease, the contraceptive of choice is
a.condom b.OCP c.copper T d.norplant

74. The most specific finding in amniotic fluid to diagnose neural tube defect is
a.acetyl choline esterase
b.acetyl glucosamine

75. The transmission of HSV to the baby is maximum at
a.1st trimester b.2nd trimester
c.3rd trimester d.at parturition

76. True about HIV in the neonate includes all the following except
a.cannot be diagnosed accurately by current methods
b.failure to thrive may be a presentation
c.transmission rate during pregnancy exceeds 90%

77. All the following are seen in maternal alcoholism except
a.microcephaly b.brachycephaly
c.hyperkinesis d.IUGR

78. A 28 yr old multipara presents with 3rd degree uterovaginal prolapse. The best management for her is
a.vaginal hysterectomy and pelvic floor repair
b.Fothergill’s repair c.sling operation
d.Fothergill’s repair with tubal ligation

79. Which of the following is not true about teratogenecity in pregnancy
a.valproate causes neural tube defects
b.carbamazepine causes breech presentation
c.phenobarbitone causes cardiovascular defects
d.phenytoin causes gum hypertrophy in mother

80. A 24 yr old pregnant female with history of the first child having spina bifida. Which of the following is true
a.maternal valproate ingestion is associated with increased chances of spina bifida
b.multivitamin is prescribed
c.recurrence rate of

81. A pregnant female with her first child having toxoplasmosis in the right eye. What is the chance of toxoplasmosis in the next pregnancy.
a.100% b.50% c.25% d.nil

82. A 38 wk pregnant lady presents with painless antepartum hemorrhage. On examination, the uterus was non-tender and the head was engaged. The most appropriate management for her.
a.conservative b.emergency USG
c.speculum examination
d.antepartum hemorrhage is associated with increased incidence of PNMR

83. In abruptio placenta, which of the following is not decreased.
a.factor V b.whole blood clotting time
c.factor VIII d.renal blood flow

84. Which of the following is true about Rh isoimmunization.
a.indirect antibody titre >4 denotes severe sensitisation
b.serial USG helps in early detection
c.order of pregnancy does not affect the prognosis
d.ABO incompatibility increases the risk of sensitisn

85. True regarding placenta accreta is
a.seen at the site of previous C.S scar
b.associated with amniotic fluid embolization
c.villi penetrate to the serosa
d.removed piecemeal under G.A

86. 6 yr old Ramesh underwent tonsillectomy. He developed profuse bleeding in the post operative period. The best treatment is
a.external compression bandage
b.mouthwash with antibiotics
c.palatal infusion d.surgery

87. Dysphonia plica ventricularis is producing sound with
a.true cords b.false cords
c.ventricle d.buccal walls

88. Stone in salivary gland is most common in
a.parotid b.submandibular
c.sublingual d.minor salivary glands

89. In obstructive jaundice in a 70 yr old man, which of the following is the investigation of choice
a.USG b.CT scan

90. Skin graft survival in the first 48 hours is dependent on
a.random connection between host & donor capillaries
b.plasmatic imbibition c.saline in dressing
d.development of new blood vessels

91. All are true about cholelithiasis except
a.seen in males at 30-70 year age mostly b.associated with gallbladder carcinoma

92. The most common salivary gland tumor in children is
a.adenoid cystic carcinoma b.mucoepidermoid
c.pleomorphic adenoma d.warthin’s

93. Regarding blood pressure in co-arctation of the aorta, which of the following is true.
a.Rt upper limb > Lt. upper limb > lower limb
b.Rt. upper limb > Lt.upper limb
c.upper limb > lower limb

94. A young couple have a 2 yr old son and a 3 yr old daughter . The wife’s father developed Huntington’s chorea at 48 yrs of age. Which of the following is true
a.sex linked dominant inheritance
b.with the above data alone a 25% chance of the children being affected can be predicted
c.if the mother is unaffected till 40 yrs, the children are free of risk
d.many of the cases occur due to new mutation

95. A young female approached an antenatal clinic fearing about congenital anomaly. Which is true regarding autosomal recessive disease
a.consanguinity increases the chance
b.family history of the disorder

96. A 30 yr old male with history of chronic smoking developed gangrene of the toes. The diagnosis is
a.TAO b.atherosclerosis c.Raynaud's

97. Which of the following is seen in sub-cortical dementia
a.aphasia b.dyslexia
c.memory loss d.tactile agnosia

98. A patient presents with loss of repetition, comprehension and naming of objects. His speech is flowing. But mistakes occur with new words. The site of lesion is
a.dominant frontal lobe
b.nondominant frontal lobe
c.dominant temporoparietal
d.nondominant temporoparietal

99. CSF finding of protein moderately elevated, glucose much reduced, chloride moderately decreased and neutrophils suggests
a.tuberculosis b.meningococcal
c.viral d.poliomyelitis

100. A child underwent splenectomy and developed sepsis. The cause could be
a.streptococcus pyogenes
b.streptococcus pneumoniae

101. Nitric oxide is most commonly used for
a.head injury b.ARDS
c.diabetic ketoacidosis d.recent paraplegia

102. A patient in the post-operative ICU with intravenous catheter developed spikes of fever. The causative organism is
a.E.coli b.coagulase negative staphylococci
c.pseudomonas d.streptococcus agalactiae

103. An 8 yr old child sustained an accident. When brought to the casualty, there was increased pCO2, decreased pH and normal bicarbonate. The probable diagnosis is
a.respiratory acidosis b. respiratory alkalosis
c.metabolic acidosis d.metabolic alkalosis

104. An infant presents with bilious vomiting since 2 months. Which of the following is not true
a.low serum potassium b.high pH
c.high urine potassium d.high serum bicarbonate

105. What is the PaO2 of an 85 yr old man breathing room air __ mmHg
a.65 b.45 c.85 d.105

106. A patient presents with a lump in the neck in the left side. FNAC of the left supraclavicular lymph nodes shows squamous cell carcinoma. The probable primary is
a.breast b.lung c.stomach d.pancreas

107. An alcoholic patient presents with dyspnea and wheezing. The sputum culture showed streptococcus pneumonia. Sensitivity results are awaited. The best drug for him is
a.erthromycin b.cefotaxime
c.imipenem d.gentamicin

108. The drug of choice for MRSA is
a.ceftriaxone b.glycopeptide

109. An 8 yr old boy from Bihar presented with hypopigmented non-anesthetic atrophic lesions on the face. The diagnosis is
a.borderline leprosy b.indeterminate leprosy
c.tinea versicolor d.pityriasis rosea

110. Satellite lesions are found in
a.borderline tuberculoid b.tuberculoid

111. In acute arterial embolus, all of the following are seen except
a.pallor b.pain c.paresthesia d.shock

112. The anti-retroviral drug without peripheral neuropathy is
a.stavudine b.lamivudine
c.didanosine d.zalcitabine

113. Which of the following is not true about streptokinase and urokinase therapy
a.thrombin mediated conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
b.advantageous in streptococcal infections
c.good for both arterial and venous thromboses
d.monitored using thrombin time

114. Which of the following can be given in acute intermittent porphyria
a.penicillin b.estrogen
c.griseofulvin d.ethchlorvynol

115. A 60 yr old female presents with anemia. Her blood values are MCV 104 fl, serum Fe 180 micrograms, serum folic acid 8.5 microgram , serum B12 60 nanograms. The diagnosis is
a.Fe deficiency anemia b.thalassemia
c.folic acid deficiency d.B12 deficiency

116. Hidradenitis suppurativa is inflammation of
a.apocrine sweat gland b.eccrine sweat gland
c.follicle d.sebaceous gland

117. The use of epinephrine in cardiopulmonary resuscitation is to
a.increase automaticity of SA node
b.divert blood from endocardial to myocardial and sub-endocardial
c.constrict peripheral blood vessel and increase BP
d.increase myocardial oxygen demand

118. In CPR given by trained personnel, which of the following is the best method to increase respiration.
a.endotracheal tube b.oxygen mask
c.nasopharyngeal tube d.oropharyngeal tube

119. A female complains of hearing voices and is on irregular treatment with chlorpromazine. While on drugs, the sounds decrease in intensity but not completely. Which drug is best in this situation.
a.clozapine b.tinapeptin
c.haloperidol d.sulpiride

120. 22 yr old Mahesh had a fight with his neighbours son. Next day, while going to the bus stop, he felt that 2 uniformed policemen were following him. On reaching home in the evening, he was frightened. He felt that the neighbours were using radiowaves to control his mind. What is his symptom.
a.passivity b.delusion of persecution
c.auditory hallucination d.thought insertion

121. Ramesh , 30 yrs says that whenever he goes to the temple, he has to abuse God. He feels guilty about this though he cannot control his thoughts. What is he suffering from
a.obsessive compulsive disorder b.schizophrenia
c.anxiety d.depression

122. Which is true about schizoid personality disorder.
a.lack of concern to others b.emotional coldness
c.excessive concern to details d.expansive behaviour

123. A 45 yr old female met with a road traffic accident. After going home from the hospital, she was afraid of getting into a car and had flashbacks of the accident. She is suffering from
a.depression b.conversion
c.post-traumatic stress disorder

124. Receptive speech disorder progressing with age includes.
a.Down syndrome b.phenyl ketonuria
c.attention deficit d.autism

125. The most direct method of drug production is
a.referring to database b.experimentation
c.molecular modelling d.stuctural complementarity

126. The potassium sparing diuretic without aldosterone action is
a.amiloride b.spironolactone

127. Amiodarone toxicity does not include
a.hyperthyroidism b.hypothyroidism
c.hyperuricemia d.pulmonary fibrosis

128. All are true about drugs and actions except
a.clomiphene-antiestrogenic acting on hypothalamus and pituitary
b.methimazole- inhibits iodination of thyroglobulin
c.prazocin- alpha 2 antagonist
d.captopril- inhibit conversion of ang I to ang II

129. All are side effects of steroidal analgesics except
a.hypertension b.diabetes
c.peptic ulcer d.hyperkalemia

130. True about drug and side effects are all except
a.cisplatin- ototoxic, nephrotoxic and emetic
b.methysergide- retroocular fibrosis
c.rifampicin- retrobulbar neuritis
d.tamoxifen-bone pain and hot flushes

131. International vaccination certificate is needed for
a.typhoid b.yellow fever

132. Which of the following is true about emergency contraception
a.after unprotected sexual intercourse
b.at the time of floods in a camp
c.with contraceptive failure
d.alternative to usual contraception

133. What is true about normal curve
a.skewed to right b.skewed to left
c.mean 0, S.D 1 d.mean 1 , S.D. 0

134. While comparing 2 samples, increasing the sample size results in all except
a.makes the distribution more statistical
b.more chance of the null hypothesis being true
c.sample mean closer to population mean
d.power of the test…….

135. A child with head circumference of 15th percentile means
a.15% of the children are below him
b.15% of the children are above him
c.head circumference is 15% of normal
d.head circumference is 15% less than normal

136. Severity of disease is best shown by
a.case fatality rate b.proportional mortality rate
c.incubation period

137. If the crude birth rate of a country is 26 and death rate is 6, the demographic stage is
a.early expanding b.late expanding
c.high stationary d.low stationary

138. Kuppuswamy socioeconomic index does not include
a.education b.structure of house
c.occupation d.income

139. Finding out of the missing cases after primary notification is called
a.active surveillance b.passive surveillance
c.sentinel surveillance d.monitoring

140. Which of the following is not transmitted in the incubation period
a.measles b.tetanus
c.whooping cough

141. Incubation period is useful in all except
a.preventive immuunization b.isolation of patient
c.finding the source d.quarantine

142. The treatment of fibroid includes all except
a.laser myolysis b.radiofrequency ablation
c.hysterectomy d.uterine artery embolization

143. All of the following are exempted from attending court except
a.dying declaration b.chemical examiners report
c.injury report by medical person
d.medical evidence from lower court

144. A 24 yr old man married a 14 yr old girl. Intercourse constitutes raping if
a.wife less than 15yrs b.wife less than 16 yrs
c.wife less than 17 yrs d.without her consent

145. Red brown post-mortem staining is due to
a.aniline dye b.carbon monoxide
c.cyanide d.phosphine

146. True about right atrium is
a.forms auricle superolaterally
b.coronary sinus opens between IVC opening and the fossa ovalis
c.rests against the central tendon of diaphragm
d.anterior fold in endocardium guards SVC opening

147. True about sympathetic trunk is
a.only 5 ganglia
b.extends from skull base to the occiput
c.post ganglionic myelinated fibres leave spinal core
d.fibres supplying head and neck leaves through C2 and C3

148. Which of the following is true about left phrenic nerve
a.dorsal rami of C3, C4 & C5
b.carries sensory fibres from mediastinum, peritoneal surface of diaphragm
c.passes through IVC opening
d.passes through left pleural cavity

149. Which of the following is false about thymus in a 2 yr old child
a.frequently causes mediastinal widening
b.causes tracheal shift
c.regresses with steroid therapy
d.sharp lateral border is seen as a sail in CXR

150. Which of the following is true about synovial membrane of knee joint
a.continuous with infrapatellar bursa
b.continuous with pre patellar bursa
c.cruciate ligament invaginates from behind
d.covers inferior surface of medial meniscus

151. Cataract in a diabetic is caused by sorbitol which is formed by interaction on glucose by
a.glucose oxidase b.aldose reductase
c.NADPH dependent phosphokinase

152. Stability of venom is dependent on
a.H bond b.disulphide bond
c.van der waal's d.ionic interaction

153. All are true about exercise except
a.pumping by calf muscle increases venous return
b.increases diastolic volume in failing heart
c.adrenergic stimulation increases cardiac contractility
d.marked rise in blood pressure

154. Which of the following is not exclusively produced by liver
a.albumin b.globulin
c.factor VIII d.fibrinogen

155. The termination of breath-holding is by
a.intercostal stretch receptor b.J receptor c.carbon dioxide d.vagal

156. Drawing of 500 mL of blood in 30 mts results in
a.mild increase in heart rate without change in BP
b.mild increase in heart rate and BP
c.fall in BP with increase in heart rate
d.increased heart rate

157. Necrotic changes in cells are due to
a.fluid accumulation b.calcium influx
c.enzymatic action d.fat deposition

158. A man died of myocardial infarction. Autopsy at 12 hrs shows which of the following findings in the heart
a.coagulative necrosis b.liquefactive necrosis

159. Causal association is shown by which of the following studies
a.cross-sectional b.prospective
c.case control study d.experimental

160. During lumbar puncture for epidural anasthesia, which structure is not pierced
a.ligamntum flavum b.posterior longitudinal ligament
c.interspinous ligament d.supraspinous ligament

161. Drug of choice of ulcerative colitis is
a.aminosalicylic acid b.sucralfate

162. Water absorption is maximal in
a.PCT b.LH c.DCT d.CD

163. All are seen in Down’s syndrome except
a.decreased femur length
b.decreased humoral length
c.decreased nuchal fold thickness
d.skin edema

164. true of bromocriptine
a.acts on dopamine receptor

165. Following are seen with digoxin toxicity except
a.atrial flutter b.ventricular tachycardia
c.atrial tachycardia with varying block

166. Aganglionic segment in Hirschsprung’s disease is at
a.dilated part b.part just distal to dilated part
c.part just proximal to dilated part
d.whole of colon and rectum

167. Randomization during controlled trials causes
a.equal chance of being selected, which is known
b. equal chance of being selected,which is not known
c.may or may not have equal chance of being selected,which is not known

168. Planning in health service is not done to
a.create a demand
b.to get maximum benefit using available resources

169. Maximum community participation is ensured by
a.order by government implemented through village health guide
b.by doctors in a PHC
c.by political leaders
d.discuss with people about needs initially, followed by implementation

170. Which of the following is true about standard error of mean
a.it is greater than the standard deviation
b.it is an error in the standard deviation

171. Bilirubin is not found in the urine of the neonate because
a.conjugated to glucuronide b.tubules not developed
c.deposited in CNS d.lipophilic

172. Preparation of the whole colon before barium enema is contraindicated in all except
a.ulcerative colitis b.hirschsprung's disease
c.carcinoma colon d.irritable bowel syn.

173. Renal tubular function is best assessed by
a.specific gravity of urine
b.concentrating capacity after dehydration
c.serum creatinine concentration
d.increased urea

174. Thyroid tumor most commonly metastazising to the bone
a.papillary b.follicular
c.hurthle cell d.medullary

175. Menorrhagia is menstrual blood loss more than
a.50ml b.80ml c.110ml

176. In management in a case of tuberculoid leprosy with reaction, which of the following is true
a.stop dapsone b.continue dapsone with steroids
c.no treatment needed

177. Which of the following is not true about chloroquine
a.stains nail and mucosa
b.concentrated by parasitized RBC's
c.useful only in exoerythrocytic phase
d.blocks DNA and RNA synthesis

178. A 24 yr old male presents with history of diabetes for 10 yrs. Which is the best test to assess his nephropathy
a.retinopathy b.diastolic BP>120
c.albuminuria 0.15-0.17 g/d on 3 occasions
d.proteinuria 0.42-0.46 g/d

179. The commonest malignancy in AIDS is
a.kaposi's sarcoma b.lriomyodsarcoma
c.lymphoma d.gastrinoma

180. Local regulation of blood flow is seen in
a.brain b.muscle
c.skin d.splanchnic

181. Orchipexy in an undescended testes decreases all except
a.tumor incidence b.epididymoorchitis
c.torsion d.avoid sexual ambiguity

182. A 35 yearold woman ingests a hundred 325mg acetaminophen tablets in a suicide attempt. Se is immediately brought to the emergency room by friends. The appropriate therapeutic strategy is
a) administration of activated charcoal
b) administration of activated charcoal plus acetylcysteine therapy
c) aministration of phenytoin
d) chelation therapy

183. The characteristic sulfur granules of actinomycosis are composed of
a) organisms
b) neutrophils and monocytes
c) monocytes and lymphocyte
d) eosinophils

184. A 53 year old male who received a renal allograft seven months ago is now receiving azathiprine and prednisone. He presents to the hospital one week after developing fever, night sweats, and anorexia. He also complains of coughing and chest pain. Chest film reveals biapical infiltrates with an apparent cavity in the left upper lobe. Auramine rhodamine satining reveals the presence of microorganisms consistent with tubercle bacilli. The patient's creatinine is 1.2mg/dL. The treatment of choice at this time would be
a) isoniazid, rifampin and pyrazinamide
b) isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide and ethambutol
c) isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol and streptomycin
d) rifampin, pyrazinamide and ethambutol

185. A 36 year old woman has noticed the absence of menses for the last 4 months.A pregnancy test id negative. Serum levels of luteinizing hormone and follicle stimulating hormone are elevated and the serum estradiol level is low. These
findings suggest
a) hilateral tubal obstruction
b) poly cystic ovarian disease
c) premature menopause
d) exogenous estrogen administration

186. During a routine check up, a 67 year old man is found to have a level of serum alkaline phosphatase three times the upper limit of normal. Serum calcium and phosphorus concentrations and liver function tests are normal. He is asymptomatic. The most likely diagnosis is
a) metastatic bone disease
b) primary hyperparathyroidism
c) Paget's disease of the bone
d) osteomalacia
187. A 78 year old man who lives alone and prepares his own food is found to have numerous ecchymotic areas on the posterior aspect of his lower extremities. On closer examination of the skin, he has hemorrhagic areas aroud hair follicle, the hairs are fragmented, several hematomas are present in the muscles of the arms and legs. Except for the absence of teeth, the rest of the physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory examination reveals a normal PT, PTT and CBC except for a hematocrit of 28%. This clinical syndrome is most likely due to deficiency of
a) vitaminA
b) vitamin C
c) folate
d) vitaminK

188. A patient who is being treated for temporal lobe epilepsy and is having recurrent seizures on his chronic regimen of carbamazepine is given phenobarbital as a second drug. However, the seizures increase in frequency. What is the probable reason for the apparently deleterious effect of adding phenobarbital
a) Decreased carabamazepine level
b) Decreased stability of CNS neuronal membranes
c) Hypokalemia
d) Intracerebral bleeding form worsening bone marrow suppression.

189. A 45 year old man presents with a daily headache He describes two attacks per day over the past 3 weeks. each attack lasts about an hour and awakens the patient from sleep. The patient has noted associated tearing and reddening of his right eye as well as nasal stuffiness. The pain is deep, excruciating and limited to the right side of the head. the neurologic examination is no focal. The most l ikely diagnosis of this patients head ache is
a) Migraine
b) Cluster head ache
c) tension head ache
d) giant cell arteritis.

190. A 37 year old man is admitted with confusion. Physical examination shows a blood pressure of 140/70 with no orthostasis, normal jugular venous pressure and no edema. Serum chemistries are notable for sodium 120mm0l/L, bicarbonate 24 mmol/L and uric acid 0.177mmol/L(2mg/dL). The most likely diagnosis is
a) hepatic cirrhosis
b) cerebral toxoplasmosis with SIADH
c) congestive cardiac failure
d) significant gastrointestinal fluid loss

191. .A 16 year old male is referred by his high school coach for a physical examination before joining the football team. His older brother died suddenly during football practice, no autopsy was obtained. The patient has a loud systolic murmur. All of the following would be consistent with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy except
a) a crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur
b) radiation in to the neck
c) brisk carotid upstrokes
d) increase in murmur on Valsalva and standing

192. .A 50 year old man with a history of smoking, hypertension and chronic exertional angina develops several daily episodes of chest pain at rest compatible with cardiac ischemia. the patient is hospitalized. all the following would be part of an appropriate management plan except
a) intravenous heparin
b) aspirin
c) intravenous nitroglycerin
d) lidocaine by bolus infusion

193. .A previously healthy 58 year old man is admitted to the hospital because of an acute inferior myocardial infarction. Within several hours, he becomes oliguric and hypotensive(blood pressure is 90/60mmHg)> Insertion of a pulmonary artery(Swan-Ganz) catheter reveals the following pressures: Pulmonary capillary wedge 4mmHg, Pulmonary artery 22/4mmHg: and mean right atrial 11mmHg. This man would best be treated with
a) fluids
b) digoxin
c) dopamine
d) intra aortic balloon counterpulsation

194. .All the following findings would be expected in a person with coarctation of aorta except
a) a systolic murmur across the anterior chest and back and a high-pitched diastolic murmur along the left sternal border.
b) a higher blood pressure in the right arm than in the left arm
c) inability to augment cardiac output with exercise
d) persistent hypertension despite complete surgical repair

195. .Tetanus is correctly characterised by which of the following statements- except
a) Neonatal tetanus develops after passage through a contaminated birth canal
b) If given early enough after exposure, human tetanus immunoglobulin can modify the course of the disease significantly
c) Tetanus does not recur because lasting immunity develops
d) In a patient who is uncertain about his or her immunization status, both tetanus toxoid and immune globulin should be given for serious wounds.

196. .True statements concerning malaria include all except
a) malaria caused by each of the four plasmodial species can relapse after the initial illness.
b) red cells negative for the Duffy blood group antigen are resistant to plasmodium vivax
c) Plasmodium malariae can cause immune mediated nephropathy
d) massive splenomegaly can result from repeated bouts of infection.

197. All of the following are seen in Kala Azar except
a) fever
b) pancytopenia
c) dysphagia and chest pain
d) hepatosplenomegaly

198. A 35 year old man is seen 6 months after a cadaveric renal allograft. The patient has been on azathioprine and prednisone since that procedure. He has felt poorly for the past week with fever to 38.6 degree celsius, anorexia and a cough productive of thick sputum. Chest x-ray reveals a left lower lobe (5cm) nodule with central cavitation. Examination of the sputum reveals long, crookked, branching, beaded gram-positive filaments. The most appropriate initial therapy would include the administration of which of the following antibiotics?
a) Penicillin
b) Erythromycin
c) Sulfisoxazole
d) Ceftazidime

199. .A 38 year old homosexual male who is known to be infected with the HIVvirus presents with a week of fever and tachypnea. Chest x-ray reveals bilateral alveolar infiltrates. Arterial blood gas determination reveals Pa O2 of 55 mmHg on room air. Bronchoalveolar lavagae is positive for methenamine sillver staining material. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the current clinical situation?
a) Transbronchial biopsy should be carried out to confirm the diagnosis
b) Corticosteroids are contraindicated given the risk of other opportunistic infections in Kaposis's sarcoma.
c) Pentamidine therapy by the aerosolized route would be appropriate if the patient had a known allergy to sulfa drugs
d) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole alone should be administered.

200. A 2 yr old child presented with generalized edema, marked decrease in urinary output, BP 100/75 mm Hg, protein +++ , no RBC or WBC. Hyaline cast +. Which of the following is true?
a.selective proteinuria
b.increased blood urea
c.complement is lowered
d.increase in plasma volume

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