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DNB; Essential Info

Author: Guest, Posted on Tuesday, March 04 @ 00:00:00 IST by rxpg  

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DNB Part 1

Diplomatae of National Board of Examination (DNB)

Mahatma Gandhi Road, Ansari Nagar, New Delhi-110029

Buttetin of Information and Application form for

DNB Exam for February, each year.

1. Last Dates for receipt of applications form :

(Theory and Practical Examinations)

a. without late fee 15th September

b. with late fee of Rs. 50/- 30th September

2. Date of written Monday, the, 1st February

examination Tuesday, the, 2nd February

3. Date of commencement of There will be an interval

Clinical/Practical/ of approximately two months

Viva-voce between theory and clinical/practical &

viva-voce examinations

4. Date of payment of Within two months of passing

enrolment fee the Final Examinations.

(after passing the final)

5. Last date for request for

change of centre for

theory examinations

* Subject to change.

No application will be entertained after the stipulated date.



Important :

1. Instructions in the booklet are liable to changes based on decisions taken by the governing body from time to time, candidates are requested to refer to the latest bulletin or corrigendum that may be issued to incorporate these changes.

2. The candidates commencing the three year postgraduate training in broad groups and two years postdoctoral training in super specialities with effect from January 1991 session in institutions accredited by the NBE/MCI/Universities will be required to submit thesis/dissertation and also a log book duly certified by their supervisors for the final NB examination. Full details have been sent to the accredited institutions for reference of the candidates as well as the institutions.

Introduction :

The National Board of Examinations was established in 1975 in Delhi with the primary objective of improving the quality of medical education by elevating the level and establishing standards of postagraduate examinations in Modern Medicine on an all Indian basis. It was to function as a national resource for imparting quality in evaluation of professional competence in Medical Colleges in the country in addition to about 90 Board accredited institutions imparting medical education at various levels and in various specialities and super specialties. There are 39 medical disciplines identified by the Board for which approved Training facilitie s are available in the country at present. The medical Councila of India has laid down standards of postgraduate examinations conducted by various universities and other institutions. It is felt that the levels of proficiency and standards of evaluation vary considerabley in these institutions and universities. The setting up of a national body to conduct postgraduate medical examination was intended to provide a common measurement standard and mechanism of evaluation of the minimum level of attainment of the objectives for which postgraduate degree courses were started in medical institutions. Inter-country and international comparisons will be facilitied with the availability of a commonly accepted evaluation mechanism.

Recognition by the Government of India :

The nomenclature of the degree awaded by the National Board of Examinations has been changed from MNAMS to Diplomate of National Board (DNB). The Medical council of India and the Government of India have included this qualification in the First Schedule of the Medical Council of India Act. 1956.

The Diplomate qualifications awarded by the National Board of Examinations have been equated with postgraduate degree and postdoctoral level qualifications of universities by the Government of India. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare vide their notification No. VII 1025/4/79 ME(Policy) dated 9/11th December 1981. and reiterated vide No. V. 11025/15/87-ME(P) (Part)/ME(UG). The holders of Board’s qualifications post in any hospital other than a training/teaching institution. They will also be eligible for appointment to the post of Registrars/teaching institution. They will also be eligible for appointment to the post of Registrars/Tutors/Demonstrators etc. in teaching institutions which would be counted as research experience for other teaching posts where holders of Board’s qualifications are required to have one year’s research experience.

I. Specialities

The National Board of Examinations (NBE) at present conducts examinations in the following specilities leading to the award of Diplomate of National Board.

1.1 Broad Specilities

(i) Anatomy

(ii) Physiology

(iii) Pharmacoloty

(iv) Pathology

(v) Microbiology

(vi) Biochemistry

(vii) Forensic Medicine

(viii) General Medicine

(ix) Pediatries

(x) Psychiatry

(xi) Radio-therapy

(xii) Radio-diagnosis

(xiii) Anaesthesiology

(xiv) Dermatology and Venereology

(xv) Dermatology

(xvi) Respiratory Diseases

(xvii) Aviation Medicine

(xviii) Nuclear Medicine

(xix) General Surgery

(xx) Orthopaedic Surgery

(xxi) Obstetrics and Gynaecology

(xxii) Ophthalmology

(xxiii) Otorhinolaryngology

(xxiv) Physical Medicine and Rehabilititation

(xxv) Social and Preventive Medicine

(xxvi) Maternal and Child Health

(xxvii) Health Administration including Hospital administration

1.2 Super specialities requiring postgraduate degree qualification such as MD/MS/Diplomate NB

(i) Cardiology

(ii) Endocrinology

(iii) Gastroenterology

(iv) Nephrology

(v) Neurology

(vi) Plastic Surgery

(vii) Pediatric Surgery

(viii) a) Neuro Surgery

(ix) b) Neuro Surgery (five year direct course) after MBBS

(x) Genit-urinary Surgery (urology)

(xi) Cardio-thoracic Surgery

(xii) Clinical Pharmacology and Therapeutics

IV. Examination Centre

4.1 Theory

a. India

Ahmedabad, Bangalore, Bhopal, Bombay, Calcutta, Chandigarh, Cuttack, Delhi, Guwahati, Patna, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Madras, Madurai, Varanasi, Trivandrum and Panaji.

b. Outside India

Lusaka, Tripoli, Ottawa, Sydney, Riyadh, London, Maputo, Tehran and Kuwait.

4.2 Practical

(centres are in India only)

Venue will be notified to candidates in due course.

NOTE : Centres for written and practical examinations are liable to change and will be communicated to the candidates before redspective examination.

v. Primary Examinations

5.1 Eligibility Requirements

(i) Candidates in possession of medical degrees from Indian Universities registerable in the First Schedule of the Medical Council of India Act, 1956 as well as from foreign universities recongnised by MCI will be eligigle to appear in the examinations conducted by the Board.

(ii) For candidates who do not come under the above mentioned categories, the equivalence of their qualifying degree will be determined by NBE.

5.2 There will be a common Primary Examination for all the broad specialities and Neuro Surgery (five year direct course.)

5.3 The Primary Examination, is of the standard of MBBS course. There are two objective type of papers, each of three hours duration, and each paper consists of 180 Multiple Choice Questions.

5.3.1. Subjects covered :

All the subjects taught during the MBBS course including pre-clinical, para clinical and clinical.

Approximate weightage given to each subject in the two papers is as follows :

Paper-I : Basic Sciences and Preventive and Social Medicine.

Social & Preventive medicine 24

Pathology 24

Microbiology 24

Pharmacology 24

Biochemistry 24

Physiology 24

Anatomy 24

Forensic medicine 6

Total 180

Paper - II : Clinical Sciences

Medicine including Paediatrics. 60

Psychiatry, Dermatoloty & Venereology

Surgery including Orthopaedies. 60

Anaesthesai, Radio Diagnosis &

Radio Therapy

Obstertrics & Gynaecology 30

Ophthalmology.ENT 30

Total 180

5.3.2. Types of multiple choice question :

Each question paper is divided into four sections, each section containing type and number of questions as indicated below :

Section I Single response 120

Section II Multiple True/False 20

Section III Assertion/Reason 20

Section IV Matching 20

Total items 180

A response sheet is attached at the end of the question papers, the candidates should take particular care that the responses are entered in the corresponding section of the response sheet only.

Section-I (Single Response Type)

The answer sheet for this section contains 120 boxes. Each box refers to a single item and is numbered accordingly. Please remember that there is only ONE single correct response, to each item. Indicate the correct response by writing 12,3, or 4 in the corresponding box.

1. Filtration of drinking water through a muslin cloth can prevent infestation with, which ONE of the following worms?

1. Guinea-worm.

2. Round worm

3. Tape worm

4. Thread worm

RESPONSE SHEET

1. Answer is 1

2. Peripheral BLOOD EOSINOPHILIA is a feature of all the following conditions EXCEPT

1. Polyarteritis nodosa

2. Hodgdin’s disease

3. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

4. Eosinophilic granuloma

RESPONSE SHEET

4. Answer is 4

Section-II (True/False Type)

For every item, for a given statement, four responses are given. The ansewer sheet for this section contains 20 big boxes pertaining to 20 items. Each big box is further divided in 4 small items. Each big box is further divided in 4 small boxes, 1,2,3, 4. You are required to write (T) True or (F) False, whichever is correct for the given responses of an item, in these four small boxes.

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. In Typhoid fever

1. Human are the only reservoir of S. Typphi

2. Multi-drug resistance has been reported in India.

3. Chloraphenicol is the drug of choice for the treatment of carriers

4. Phage typing is the best epidemiological marker.

RESPONSE SHEET

1 2 3 4

T T F T

The answer is 1. True 2. True

3. False 4. True

For true/False type of items, there will be negative marking for the incorrect responses.

Section-III (Assertion/Reason Type)

Each item consists of two statements-first statement is assertin and second statement is the reason.

Use 1 If Statement is true:reason (Second statement) is true; and reason is a correct explanantion of the statement.

Use 2 If Statement is true : reason (Second statement) is true but reason is not a correct explanation of the statement.

Use 3 If the statement is true but given reason (second statement) is False.

Use 4 If statement if false but given reason (Second statement) is true.

Use 5 If both statement and reason are false.

In the answer sheet provided for this section there are 20 boxes. You are required to indicate your answer by writing 1,2,3,4 or 5 as given above whichever according to your is correct response in the box provided.

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. Immediate postpartum laparoscopic ligation is dangerous

BECAUSE

the size of the uterine fundus is quite large.

RESPONSE SHEET

1. Answer is 1

First statement is true and the second statement as reason is also true and that is the correct explanation for the first statement.

2. In diabetic ketoacidosis, initial serum potassium is normal of high..

BECAUSE

Associated renal failure leads to reduced excretion of potassium.

RESPONSE SHEET

3. Answer is 3

First statement is correct but the reason (Second statement) is not correct.

Section-IV (Matching Type)

The answer sheet, provided for this section has 20 big boxes, further divided into three small boxes-A, B & C. Each item consists of a list of three parameters (A,B,C) on the left hand side and a list of five suggested matching statements on the right hand side (1,2,3,4,5) of which only three are correct. Left hand parameters are to be matched with the correct statements given on the right hand side. You are required to enter the number of correct statement i.e. 1,2,3,4 or 5 in the corresponding small box.

SAMPLE QUESTION

Match the following ocular manifestation with its specific association disease :

A. Black sclera 1. Fanconi’s Syndrome

B. Blue sclera 2. Onchocercosis

C. Yellow sclera 3. Haemochromatosis

4. Osteogenesis Imperfecta

5. Gibert’s sydrome

RESPONE SHEET

A B C

2 4 5

Answer is A-2 B-4 C-5

For matching type of items, there will be negative marking for the incorrect responses

5.4 Exemption : Candidates possessing postgraduate degree/diploma qualification recognised by MCI/NBE/University shall be granted exemption from taking the Primary examination.

VI. Final Examinations

Broad Specialities

6.1 Final examination will consist of two parts.

a. Theory-4 papers

b. Practical including viva voce.

For details of contents of papers, the candidates should consult the syllabus of the speciality concerned. Basic sciences as applied to the particular speciality would be covered in Paper IV.

6.2 Eligibility Criteria

A. Application for Final Examinations should have.

(i) Passed Primary Examination of the Board or should possess postgraduate degree/diploma recognised by MCI/NBE/University.

(ii) Candidate should have completed not less than three years of training as Postgraduate degree student/Registrar/Tutor/Demonstrator/Senior Resident in the Speciality from an institution or hospital degree training (including one year’s housemanship or its equivalent training approved by NBE/MCI/University of which at least six months shall be in the speciality.

a. Candidates with atleast PG Dimploma qualification from recognised institutions working as Tuttor/Demonstrator/Sr. Resident/Registrar, speciality Medical/Officer/Speciality or any other equivalent fultime post in approved teaching institutions for the requisite prescribed period after acquisition of the postgraduate qualifications provided they produce a certificate from the Head of the Institution that the candidate had in fact completed the minimum required period of service in one of the approved designations.

b. Candidates with similar qualifications as in above working in NBE accredited non-teaching institutions in similar or identical positions.

c. Candidates holding atleast PG Diploma qualifications recognised by M.C.I. and have been working as Research Officer/Pool Officer with clinical responsibilities can also apply provided they furnish a certificate for the rquisite period of training (one year after PG Diploma course) duly signed by the Head of the Department countersigned by the Head of the Department countersigned by the head of the Institutions.

(iv) Candidates who will be appearing in their MD/MS Examinations (before the start of Board’s examination) can also apply before the due dates of a particular session. They will be allowed to appear in the Theory Examination. However, their results will not be declared unless the MD/MS pass certificate is received by the Board.

6.4 Practical Examination

a. Only those candidates who obtain a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate of theory papers shall be declared successful in theory examinations.

b. Only a candidate who is declared successful in final theory examination will be allowed to appear for the practical examination immediately following the theory examination. If he fails or does not appear in this examination, he will be allowed two more chances in the immediately following two successive practical examinations, without having to appear in the theory examination but after paying full examination fee. Thereafter such a candidate will be required to take full examination (theory and practical) as a fresh candidate.

This does not apply to Super-specialities

c. Candidates who obtain 50% in the aggregte of theory and practicals combined and not less than 50% in practical, shall be declared successful in the specialty examinations.

d. NBE will not provide details of Marks/Grading in the examination.




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