| Author |
Message |
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
kussmaul resp
seen only in met acidosis ....dka most commonly
|
|
|
|
|
UNANSWERED: Is it just one exam for DNB SS and FET in 2019?
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
lympatics from back of skin above iliac crest drain into .....subscapular gp of axillary ln......kindly correct
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
torch assay not reqd in asseement of recurrent preg losses ....kindly correct
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
brachial plexus anatomy
trunks ===3
divisions ====3*2=6
cords =====3
roots ====5
hence ans six divisions shd b correct
pl correct
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
radical antrum operation indication
its oro antral fistula ....not ch frontal sinusitis....
radical antrum operation aka caldwell luc op is used in ch maxillary sinusitis and for closure of oro antral fistula created thereafter
|
|
|
|
rajaru
Aim NEET-SS
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
cubital fossa boundaries
Boundaries
superior (proximal) boundary — an imaginary horizontal line connecting the medial epicondyle of the humerus to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus
medial (ulnar) boundary — lateral border of Pronator Teresmuscle originating from the medial epicondyle of the humerus.
lateral (radial) boundary — medial border of Brachioradialis muscle[2]originating from the lateral supraepicondylar ridge of the humerus.
apex- it is directed inferiorly, and is formed by the meeting point of the lateral and medial boundaries
superficial boundary (roof)- skin, superficial fascia containing the median cubital vein, the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm and the medial cutaneous nerve of the forearm, deep fascia reinforced by the bicipital aponeurosis(a sheet of tendon-like material that arises from the tendon of the biceps brachii)
deep boundary (floor)- brachialis and supinator muscles
hence option biceps tendon is correct .....it forms the roof .....a tricky qn ....well done team rxpg
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
cubital fossa boundaries
Boundaries
superior (proximal) boundary — an imaginary horizontal line connecting the medial epicondyle of the humerus to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus
medial (ulnar) boundary — lateral border of Pronator Teresmuscle originating from the medial epicondyle of the humerus.
lateral (radial) boundary — medial border of Brachioradialis muscle[2]originating from the lateral supraepicondylar ridge of the humerus.
apex- it is directed inferiorly, and is formed by the meeting point of the lateral and medial boundaries
superficial boundary (roof)- skin, superficial fascia containing the median cubital vein, the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm and the medial cutaneous nerve of the forearm, deep fascia reinforced by the bicipital aponeurosis(a sheet of tendon-like material that arises from the tendon of the biceps brachii)
deep boundary (floor)- brachialis and supinator muscles
hence option biceps tendon is correct .....it forms the roof .....a tricky qn ....well done team rxpg
|
|
|
|
mandowara
Aim USMLE Step 3
|
Re: kussmaul resp
| diveysaib wrote: |
| seen only in met acidosis ....dka most commonly |
No it's seen in many conditions...I have wonderful pnemonic...
K -ketoacidosis(DKA)
U -Uremia(end stage nephrotic disease or CRF)
S -salicylate poisoning
M -Metabolic acidosis
A -Alcohol(ethanol poisoning)
L -Lactic acidosis
so kussmaul breathing is seen in kusmal
  
|
|
|
|
mandowara
Aim USMLE Step 3
|
• Azithromycin – administered to HIV + patients can prevent Mycobacterium Avium
• Ethambutol – inhibits arabinosyl transferase which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan etc. Side Effects à Optic Neuritis
• Rifampin – inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase and thus prevents transcription of DNA into mRNA.
• Isoniazid – inhibits mycolic acid synthesis.
• FF = GFR/RPF GFR = Creatinine Clearance/Inulin
• RPF = PAH
• Fibroadenoma – cellular myxoid stroma, sometimes there are compressed cystic spaces.
• Spongiosis - epidermal accumulation of edematous fluid in the intercellular spaces.
• Diphenoxylate – opiate anti-diarrheal structurally related to Meperidine.
• Octreotide – good for secretory diarrhea, which is a Somatostatin Analog
• Urease – converts urea to carbon dioxide and ammonia and thus increases pH
• Radiation Therapy - causes 1) DNA double strand breakage 2) formation of free radical
• Methadone – has a long half life
• In Fetal Lungs - after 30 weeks there is an increase in Lecithin
• After 36 weeks there is a rise in Phosphatydylglycerol
• Males with 5 α reductase deficiency - feminized external genitalia, small phallus and Hypospadias are common.
|
|
|
|
mandowara
Aim USMLE Step 3
|
• Acute Rejection - occurs within weeks of transplantation and primarily mediated by host T-lymphocytes that act against donor MHC antigens. To prevent, administer Calcineurin Inhibitor such as Cyclosporine.
• Cricopharyngeal Muscle Dysfunction – caused by diminished relaxation of pharyngeal muscles during swallowing. Usually occurs in elderly, where they present with coughing, choking and recurrent aspiration.
• Doxyrubicin – anthracycline chemotherapeutic agent will form free radicals in myocardium. The side effect is cardiac fibrosis, which will present with Dilated Cardiomyopathy.
• Phospholipase C - forms IP3 and DAG from phospholipids. And IP3 causes an increase in intracellular calcium, which then activates Protein Kinase C.
• Lactase Deficient Patients - will present with a Normal Intestinal Mucosa.
• Polycystic Ovarian Disease Patients – will benefit from therapy with Clomiphene, which is an estrogen receptor antagonist and will increase the release of GnRH and stimulates ovulation. Because in PCOS the patients’ ovaries will secrete estrogen which will feedback inhibit GnRH, and in treatment with Clomiphene, these receptors will be suppressed and thus GnRH will secrete estrogens and induce ovulation.
• Nimodipine – Calcium Channel Blocker, used in surgery on Subarachnoid Hemorrhage to prevent cerebral vasospasm.
• Aspergillosis – occurs in Old Lung Cavities. It will grow as a Fungus Ball and will present in old cavities caused by TB, Sarcoidosis or Emphysema. Patients with Asthma may have a hypersensitivity reaction to Aspergillus.
• Erosions of Gastric Mucosa - are called erosions because they do not penetrate Muscularis Mucosa, when they do, then it’s called Ulcers.
• Candida Albicans – will inoculate into serum at 37 degrees for 3 hours will lead to formation of Hyphae from Yeast.
• Mitral Valve Prolapse – the most common cardiac abnormality that predisposes to native Valve Bacterial Endocarditis.
• Majority of Free Water – will be reabsorbed in the Proximal Tubule, regardless of the patient’s Hydration Status.
|
|
|
|
hydnseek
|
keep it up diveysaib and mandowara for starting this thread and RxPG deserves accolades from us for their work !!
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
Re: kussmaul resp
| mandowara wrote: |
| diveysaib wrote: |
| seen only in met acidosis ....dka most commonly |
No it's seen in many conditions...I have wonderful pnemonic...
K -ketoacidosis(DKA)
U -Uremia(end stage nephrotic disease or CRF)
S -salicylate poisoning
M -Metabolic acidosis
A -Alcohol(ethanol poisoning)
L -Lactic acidosis
so kussmaul breathing is seen in kusmal
|
the exact qn was
kussmaul resp seen in
a pontine lesio
b medullary lesion
c met acidosis
d all above
majority of all gave d as ans which is wrong
dka uremia salicylate poisoning all lead to met acidosis
hence met acidosis alone is correct
thanx for the pneumonic though
the exact qn was
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
macular degen
Risk factor
ans smoking correctly given
incidence of macular degen found 3 times more in smokers
ref wikipedia
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
hand in carpal tunne synd
Ans shd b pointing index sign
simian hand seen in down syn
kindly correct
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
Intercostobrachial nerve is br of lat cutaneous br of second intercostal nerve
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
Biceps brachii qn
short head att to corocoid pr of scapula
long head att to supraglenoid tubercle
inserted into radial tuberoaity
it flexes the elbow and is powerful supinatior
all statements wwre true
none of above shd b the ans
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
Clavicle ossification qn
it has two prim and one sec centre
it medial end ossifies in cartilagee
rxpg team got this one correct
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
Pharyngotympanic tube or et connects naaophatynx to middle ear cavity
kindly correct
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
Nose develops from both first and second branchial arch
third branchial arch gives rise to neck
kindly correct
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
No of genes in human genome acc to a 2003 human genome project is 20000- 25000
So correct ans shd b 30000
Kindly correct
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
consumption of which food causes poisoning by e coli 0157
Escherichia coli O157:H7 is an enterohemorrhagic strain of the bacterium Escherichia coli and a cause of foodborne illness.[1] Infection often leads to hemorrhagic diarrhea, and occasionally to kidney failure, especially in young children and elderly persons.
Transmission is via the fecal-oral route, and most illness has been associated with eating undercooked, contaminated ground beef or ground pork, swimming in or drinking contaminated water, or eating contaminated vegetables.
hence ans given correctly as beef by rxpg team
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
rapid induction of anesthesia with which inhalation agent
correctly given as sevoflurane by rxpg team
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
community needs assessment program
Community Needs Assessment Approach (CNAA) in 1997-98.
Decentalised planning implicates close association of the community and its leading lights and opinion leaders such as village Pradhans, Mahila Swasthya Sanghs, Primary School Teachers, etc. in formulation of the PHC based family welfare and health care plan. Under this approach, plans regarding family welfare services were to be formulated in consultation with the community at the grass root level and expected to lead to improvement in quality of services and client satisfaction matching with ground situation requirements.
hence community needs assesment prog works at PHC level
kindly correct
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
yrs old male was operated for fracture neck of femur and since next day develops irritability, disorientation & has been talking to imaginary people. Diagnosis is?
OPTIONS: PUBLIC RESPONSE
Senile dementia 2% (1% sure)
Senile Psychosis 3% (3% sure)
Delirium 37% (32% sure)
Post operative Psychosis
ans wronlgy given as delirium
correct ans shd b post operative psychoses
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
A lady had breathlessness, arthralgia and granulomatous uveitis. Diagnosis is?
OPTIONS: PUBLIC RESPONSE
Ocular Sarcoid 27% (23% sure)
HLA B27 related Uveitis 46% (38% sure)
Tuberculosis 3% (1% sure)
Behcets syndrome
Ocular sarcoid can manifest itself with blurred vision, photophobia, floaters, redness, and pain from uveitis. Cranial nerve palsies causing diplopia and decreased vision from optic nerve infiltration have also been reported. Lacrimal gland involvement may cause proptosis and diplopia secondary to mass affect.
Systemic symptoms of sacroidosis include febrile illness with cough and dyspnea, fatigue, erythema nodosum, acute polymyositis, arthritis, musculoskeletal anomalies, or sarcoid nodules of the skin
hence ocular sarcoid given correctly by rxpg team
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
The treatment of choice in the case of second degree utero vaginal prolapse in a 30 yrs old multiparous woman would be
OPTIONS: PUBLIC RESPONSE
Vaginal hysterectomy 4% (3% sure)
Vaginal hysterectomy with pelvic floor repair 34% (22% sure)
Fothergill's repair 36% (21% sure)
Fothergill's repair with vaginal tuberectomy
option d is better as fothergill repair will treat the prolapse and tubectomy ensures that the lady doenot coneive further....multi gravida is a rf for prolapse
gud qn from rxpg team
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
Which one of the following anaesthetic agents can cause malignant hyperpyrexia??
OPTIONS: PUBLIC RESPONSE
Isoflurane 5% (4% sure)
Halothane 65% (57% sure)
Propofol 7% (6% sure)
Sevoflurane 15% (13% sure)
Ketamine
Malignant hyperthermia is most commonly due to volatile anesthetic gases, such as halothane, sevoflurane, desflurane, isoflurane, enflurane or the depolarizing muscle relaxants succinylcholine, decamethonium, and suxamethonium used primarily in general anesthesia.[1] Other drugs that have been suspected of causing MH include ketamine, catecholamines, phenothiazines, and monoamine oxidase inhibitors. There are also few reports of MH being triggered by nitrous oxide administration. [3] In rare cases, the biological stresses of physical exercise or heat may be the trigger.[1]
Other anesthetic drugs are considered safe.[citation needed] These include local anesthetics (lidocaine, bupivicaine, mepivacaine), opiates (morphine, fentanyl), ketamine, barbiturates, nitrous oxide, propofol, etomidate, benzodiazepines.
The nondepolarizing muscle relaxants pancuronium, cisatracurium, atracurium, mivacurium, vecuronium and rocuronium also do not cause MH.
hence correct ans appears to be halthane
kindly correct
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
The most common cause of esophageal stricture in children is:?
OPTIONS: PUBLIC RESPONSE
Esophageal carcinoma 1% (1% sure)
Diphtheria 44% (34% sure)
Achalasia of the cardia 13% (10% sure)
Corrosive intake
ans correctly given as corrosive intake
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
vision 2020
Which one of the following is not a target disease under \'Vision 2020 : The Right to Sight\'??
OPTIONS: PUBLIC RESPONSE
Refractive error 19% (13% sure)
Trachoma 16% (12% sure)
Corneal blindness 24% (16% sure)
Diabetic retinopathy 40% (30% sure)
Target disease areas for VISION 2020 are:
Cataract
Refractive Error
Trachoma
Childhood Blindness
Low Vision
Onchocerciasis/River Blindness
Glaucoma
Diabetic Retinopathy
Age Related macular degeneration
hence ans shd be none of the above
or it cud be corneal blindness
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
Attachment of sustentaculum Tali ,is closely related to 
OPTIONS: PUBLIC RESPONSE
Tibialis anterior 10% (6% sure)
Tibialis posterior 47% (30% sure)
Flexor hallucis longus 36% (25% sure)
Flexor digitorum longus
At the upper and forepart of the medial surface of the calcaneus is a horizontal eminence, the sustentaculum tali (alternatively, the talar shelf), which gives attachment to the plantar calcaneo-navicular (spring) ligament, tibiocalcaneal ligament, and medial talocalcaneal ligament.
This eminence is concave above, and articulates with the middle calcaneal articular surface of the talus; below, it is grooved for the tendon of the Flexor hallucis longus; its anterior margin gives attachment to the plantar calcaneonavicular ligament, and its medial margin to a part of the deltoid ligament of the ankle-joint.
hence ans correctly given as fhl by rxpg
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
Which one of the following is the most suitable situation for prescribing the progestin only pill??
OPTIONS: PUBLIC RESPONSE
Perimenopausal patients 5% (4% sure)
Emergency contraception 28% (20% sure)
Lactational mother 65% (51% sure)
Diabetic mother
benefits of POP
Lacking the estrogen of combined pills, they are not associated with increased risks of DVT or heart disease. With the decreased clotting risk, they are not contraindicated in the setting of sickle-cell disease. The progestin-only pill is recommended over regular birth control pills for women who are breastfeedingbecause the mini-pill does not affect milk production (estrogen reduces the amount of breast milk). Like combined pills, the minipill decreases the likelihood of pelvic inflammatory disease.
It is unclear whether POPs provide protection against endometrial cancer and ovarian cancerto the extent that COCP do.
There are fewer serious complications than on COCP.[
hence correct ans is lactaing lady
kindly correct
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can be useful in the evaluation of the cervical spinal cord because:?
OPTIONS: PUBLIC RESPONSE
Gives excellent detail of bony structures 2% (1% sure)
Gives excellent detail of soft tissue structures such as the spinal cord, roots, and meninges 62% (48% sure)
Is a very simple, fast, straightforward test 0% (0% sure)
All of the above
ans shd b b only
mri is gud for soft tissues /ct better for bony structures
kindly correct
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
Fracture femur in infants is best treated by:?
OPTIONS: PUBLIC RESPONSE
Open reduction 6% (3% sure)
Closed reduction 19% (17% sure)
IM nailing 3% (2% sure)
Galtow\'s splinting
ans shd b gallow splinting
kindly correct
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
A patient suffers from tonic-clonic and absence seizures. They are no longer able to tolerate valproate. Your next treatment:?
OPTIONS: PUBLIC RESPONSE
Lamotrigine 22% (15% sure)
Vigabatrin 7% (6% sure)
Carbamazepine 31% (25% sure)
Gabapentin 3% (2% sure)
Ethosuximide
ans shd be ethosuximide....kindly correct
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
Following are the complication of the peptic ulcer except?
OPTIONS: PUBLIC RESPONSE
Bleeding 3% (2% sure)
Perforation 6% (4% sure)
Recurrence 32% (24% sure)
Gastric outlet obstructio
ans shd b gastric outlet obstn
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
Which one of the following is not a correct statement regarding the use of condom??
OPTIONS: PUBLIC RESPONSE
Air should be squeezed out of the tip
It should be tested by inflating
It should be unrolled on erect penis
Ky jelly may be used for lubrication
ans shd b ----it shd b tested by inflating ---it will get torn----kindly correct
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
Chylous ascites is caused by all of the following EXCEPT?
Colloid carcinoma of stomach 21% (15% sure)
Tuberculosis 14% (8% sure)
Trauma 22% (15% sure)
Nephrotic syndrome
ans shd b nephrotic synd ----kindly correct
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
In a case of Vesicular mole all of following are high risk factors for the development of choriocarcinoma EXCEPT?
Serum HCG levels more than 100000u/ml 5% (3% sure)
Uterus size larger than sixteen week 19% (11% sure)
Features of thyrotoxicosis 42% (27% sure)
Presence of bilateral theca lutein cysts of ovary
ans shd b d----kindly correct
|
|
|
|
docofarabiansea
Aim AIIMS
|
| diveysaib wrote: |
In a case of Vesicular mole all of following are high risk factors for the development of choriocarcinoma EXCEPT?
Serum HCG levels more than 100000u/ml 5% (3% sure)
Uterus size larger than sixteen week 19% (11% sure)
Features of thyrotoxicosis 42% (27% sure)
Presence of bilateral theca lutein cysts of ovary
ans shd b d----kindly correct |
Thnkx dr.divey fr such wndrful post.........!
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
hypokalemia ass wd
raised qt
albuterol inhalation
out of rhabdomyolysis and crf
all except crf is better as hyperkalemia seen in crf
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
pronator teres anatomy qn
median n passes deep to both heads is correct
kindly correct
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
parkinsonism drugs
anti muscarinic drugs like trihexyphenidyl given in drug induced parkinsonism
amantadine doesnot cause ankle edema
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
enchondroma arises from
phalages shd b correct
|
|
|
|
arjungandhi
Aim AIPGE 2013
|
urgent. candle light march at jantar mantar 5pm 22nd jan Only RxPG members can see links here! Register or Login!
|
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
bld supply of little area
little area or keisael bach plexus supplied by greater palatine art . septal br of sup labial .ant ethmoidal art
ans wrongly given ......all options wer correct......none shd b the ans
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
poly sacccharides example ae
sorbitol correct as it is reducedglucose......dextrinamylose and amylopectin are polysaccharides
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
bleeding from umbilical stump is in neonate dt
factor 13 def to b precise
|
|
|
|
diveysaib
Aim AFMC 2011
|
bleeding from umbilical stump is in neonate dt
factor 13 def to b precise
|
|
|
|
arjungandhi
Aim AIPGE 2013
|
Edited by: RxPG Team
Edit Reason: Spam, see TOS
|
|
|
|
