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[posted by vimoj]Tue Feb 14, 2006 12:00 am

HERE IS PAPER ONE 100 MCQS
PAPER ONE

Anatomy

1. OPTHALMIC ARTERY PASSES THRU OPTIC CANAL [A. SUP ORBITAL FORAMEN B. INFERIOR ORB FORAMEN C. INFRA ORBITAL FORAMEN D. OPTIC CANAL]PAGE 87 CHAURASIA
2. TERMINAL BRANCH OF BASILAR ART- PCA [A.ACA. B. PCA C. Ant comm. D?POST COMM] PAGE 300 CHAURASIA
3. INF TIbio fibular joint is a SYNDESMOSIS ? ALL INDIA REPEAT [ a. plane joint b. synovial jt c. syndesmosis d?]
4. abductor of vocal cords- POSTR CRICO ARYTENOID [ A. TRANSEVERSE CRICOARYTENOID B. POSTR CRICO ARYTENOID 3 CRICOTHRYROID D?]
5. SHORT HEAD OF BICEPS FEMORIS SUPPLIED BY COMMON PERONEAL PART OF SCIATIC N [ long head by tibial part of sciatic- ref pg 74 chaurasia]
6. HEPATO PANCREATIC DUCT OPENS INTO D2[ A. D1 B. D2 C.D3 D .D4]
7. POSTR BELLY OF DIGASTRIC IS SUPPLIED BY SECOND ARCH [A.IST B. SECOND C .3RD D.4TH]
8. SUPERIOR PANCREATICO DUODENAL ART FROM GASTRODUODENAL ART
9. NOT A CONTENT OF SPERMATIC CORD ? ILIOINGIUNAL NERVE [ a. pampiniform plexus of v.b. cremastric art c. testicular art d. ilioinguinal n]
10. INF SAGITTAL SINUS AND GR CERERBRAL V JOIN TO FORM THE STRAIGHT SINUS [ PGE 75 CHAURASIA]

Physiology
11. RMP OF SMOOTH MUSCLE ? 50-70mv [ref pg 83 ganong[] [A. 50-70 B. 70-80 C.90-100]- it mentions there is no actual rmp but averages around -50
12. zero phase of action potential ? Sodium channels
13. activation of angiotensinogen ? LUNG [A. LUNG B. LIVER C. KIDNAY D?}
14. DURATION OF ATRIAL SYSTOLE ? 0.27 ms [reference pg570 ganong]
15. IRON ABSORBED FROM DUODENUM
16. MAIN MUSCLE OF INSPIRATION ? DIAPHRAGM [ A. DIAPHRAGM B.INT INTERCOSTALS C. ABDOMINAL D. SCALENE]
17. LINING OF VENTRICLES BY EPENDYMAL CELLS
18. USED FOR STUDYING CLEARANCE- INULIN
19. EPSP- WRONG IS ?- hyper polarization of the post synaptic cell membrance PAGE 90 GANONG [A. transient hyper polarization b. sodium chanensl influx C.? D?]
20. SURFACTANT DOES IS ? PREVENT PULMONARY EDEMA [PGE 657 GANONG] [A. PREVENT PULM EDEMA B. INCREASES COMPLIANCE C. ]
21. DISTENDING PRESSURE OF LUNG ? TRANSPULMONARY PRESSURE [ Ptp IS DEFINED AS ALVEOLAR PR MINUS PLEURAL PRESSUREE- PAGE 1499 HARRISON]

Biochemistry
22. ANTIOXIDANT ACTS IN LEAST O2 ENVIRONMENT - [A. BETA CAROTEN B. URIC ACID C. VITAMIN C D. VITAMIN E]
NO REFERENCE EXCEPT THIS

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.. IF GIVEN CHOICE ID GO FOR VIT E
23. XERODERMA PIGMENTOSUM DEFECT- NUCLEAR EXCISION REPAIR [A. NER B. BASE EXCISION REPAIR C. ? D?]
24. NADPH NOT IN UREA CYCLE [ A. CHOLESTEROL SYNTHEIS B.UREA C. FATTY ACID SYN D. GLUTATHIONE SYNTHEIS]
25. DNA STRAND FROM WHICH -TEMPLATE STRAND [ A. TEMPLATE STRAND B. CODING STRAND C. ANTI-TEMPLATE STRAND D. TRANSCRIPT]- from what I heard.. this is one of the questions which people made most mistakes
26. BOND THAT REMAINS AFTER DENATURING OF PROTEINS- PEPTIDE BOND[ A. PEPTIDE BOND B. IONIC BOND C. HYDROGEN D?]
27. MYOGLOBIN ? MONOMER [ A. MONOMER B. DIMER C. HOMOTETRAMER D. HETEROTETRAMER]- VASUDEVAN chapter on HB
28. most ESSENTIAL AMINO ACID ? LINOLEIC ACID
29. AROMATIC AMINO ACID NOT IS LYSINE [ A. TRYPTOPHAN B. TYROSINE C. LYSINE D. PHENYALANINE]
30. STORAGE FORM, OF GLUCOSE IN BODY- GLYCOGEN[what katti question??}
31. LONG TERM CONTROL OF GLUCOSE IN OUR BODY ? HBA1C[ A. HBA2 B..HBAIC C.? D?]
32. CHOLESTEROL USED IN SYNTHESIS OF ALL EXCEPT WHAT EVER NOT IN CHOICE.. PLS HELP HERE [A. STEROID B. BILE ACID C. VIT D D.?]
33. PROTEIN THAT IS BOUND TO DNA- HISTONE
34. CRIGGLER NAGGAR SYNDROME ? UGTIA1 DEFICIENCY

Pathology
35. PIVOTAL ROLE IN TYPE 1 HS- Ig E
36. Major Ig IN HUMAN MILK AND IN MUCOUS MEMBRANE- Ig A
37. MARGINATION ? neutrophils are arranged along the endothelium of bv [ a. margination B. ADHESION C. ? D?]- LUCKY PAVEMENTING WAS NOT IN THE CHOICE
38. BCELLS DERIVED FROM PLASMA CELLS- 114 PAGE ANANTHA NARAYANAN
39. NOT A BLOT- EASTERN BLOT [ A. NORTH B. SOUTH C. EAST D. WEST]- DHAMAKA QUESTION..
40. NOT TRUE ABOUT CHEMOKINE- SINGLE SPECIFIC CLONE OF CELLS?-REF ROBBINS PG 70 IN CHEMOKINES[ A. SINGEL CLONE OF CELLS B.PLEOTROPHIC C. ROLE IN INFLAMMATION D?]
41. COMPLETE MOLE- 46XX
42. AFLATOXIN B1- CA LIVER
43. MEN SYNDROME INHERITANCE ?AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT
44. MALIGNANT PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA DIAGNOSED BY ?METASTASIS ONLY[ STRAIGHT FORWARD Q]
45. APGAR USES COLOR [ A. COLOR B. WEIGHT C. HEIGHT D. LENGTH] ??? BONUS DHAMAKA QUESTION??
46. VERTICAL TRANSMISSION NOT SEEN IN CANDIDA [A. CANDIDA B. TOXOPLASMA C. CMV.D.HIV]
47. MC INTRA CARDIAC TUMOR ?MYXOMA
48. TUMOR ARISING FROM SMOOTH MUSCLE CELLS-LEIOMYOMA
49. TUMOR OF SKIN WHICH RARELY METASTASISE ? BASAL CELL CA
50. SYNTHESIS OF NUCLEAR DNA TAKES PLACE IS S PHASE [A. G1 B. S C.G2 D. M]
51. HYALINE ARTERIOLOSCLEROSIS IN BENIGN HYPERTENSION [A. BENIGN B. MALIGNANT C D.?]

Microbiology
52. MESOSOME ?RESEMBLE MITOCHONDRIA IN EUKARYOTES [ REF PAGE 3 ANANTHA NARAYANAN]
53. INVITRO TEST FOR VIRULENCE OF PNEUMOCOCCUS- INTRAPERITONEAL INOCULATIN IN MICE [ REF ANANTHANARAYAN 203 PG] [ a. intraperitoneal mice b. intra testicular in mice c. intra conj in guinea pig d. mice tail]
54. WATER CAN PERINEUM ? GONOCOCCUS [ a. gonococcus b. ureoplasma urealyticum c. d?]
55. bacteria surviving in alkaline media ? VIBRIO CHOLERA
56. BOTULISM CLINICAL FEATURE S NOT IS DIARRHOEA [ A.DIARRHOEA B. CONSTIPATION C. DIPLOPIA D. WEAKNESS]
57. HOLTER METHOD SURVIVED BY Q FEVER [ REF ANANTHA NARAYANANAN ? REST 3 SURVIVES HEATING AT 60 DEG[ A..Q FEVER B. BRUCELL C. SALMONELLA D. MYCO TB]
58. SPORULATION IN STATIONARY PHASE [PGE 19 ANANTHANARAYANAN]
59. PERIOD FROM INOCULATION TO SIGNS OF GROWTH IN CULTURE ? LAG PHASE [ PAGE 19 ANANTHA NARAYANAN]
60. USED AS STANDARD IN HOT AIR OVENS- BACILLUS THERMOPHILUS
61. FREE DNA TAKEN FROM ENVIRONMENT BY BACTERIA- TRANSFORMATION[ PGE 51 ANANTHANARAAYANAN]
62. WHICH IS A DNA VIRUS ?- HEPATITIS B [ A. HEP B
63. WHICH IS NOT A DNA ONCOGENIC VIRUS ? HEPATITIS E VIRUS [ A. HEP E B. EBV C. HPV D. HEP B]
64. TNF ALPHA DERIVED FROM ACTIVATED MACROPHAGES[ TNF BETA FROM T HELPER LYMPHOCYTES [PGE 134 ANANTHA NARAYANAN]
Pharmacology
65. DRUG BANNED IN RENAL FAILURE ? CEPHALORIDINE
66. DIGOXIN MECHANISM FO ACTION ? NA K ATPASE
67. NON STEROIDAL POTENT ANALGESIC WITH MODEST ANTI INFLAMMATORY ACTION ? KETOROLAC [PAGE 178 TRIPATHI ? SAME LINE QUOTED} [ A. PIROXICAM B. KETOROLAC C. DICLOFENAC D. MEFENEMIC ACID]
68. LONG ACTING POTENT NSAID ? PIROXICAM [ SAME PAG E 178 TRIPATHI] [ A. PIROXICAM B. DICLOFENAC C. IBUPROFEN D. ?]
69. DOC FOR MOTION SICKNESS- HYOSCINE ?[REF 601 TRIPATHI]
70. BOTH EXTRA AND INTESTINAL AMOEBIASIS IS TREATED BY METRONIDAZOLE [PAGE 750 TRIPATHI0
71. BENZOYL PEROXIDE- ACNE [PGE 800 TRIPATHI]
72. KERATOLYTIC ? SALICYLIC ACID
73. ORAL CHELATING AGENT ? DEFERIPRONE [ PAGE 815 TRIPATHI]
74. DIURETIC USED IN HYPERCALCURIA WITH RENAL STONES ? THIAZIDE A. THIAZIDE B. FRUSEMIDE C. SPIRONOLACTONE D?]
75. DOC FOR ENTERIC FEVER- CIPROFLOXACIN [649 TRIPATHI][A. CIPRO B. CHLORAMPHENICOL C. AMPI D?]
76. SPECIFIC ANTIDOTE FOR DIGOXIN TOXICITY- F ab ANTIBODY
77. NITROGLYCERINE IS GIVEN SUBLINGUALLY BECOZ . IMMEDIATE ACTION IS REQUIRED[ TRIPATHI HAD 2 CHOICES ..PAGE 1440 OF HARRISON SAYS THE REASON WHY WE GIVE NITRATES SUBLINGUALLY BECOZ THE ABSORPTION OF THESE AGENTS IS RAPID AND COMPLETE THROUGH THE MUCOUS MEMBRANES

Forensic
78. MOLOTOV COCKTAIL-AHA !! A true blessing for pc gamers like me??. And all those who have played MAX PAYNE? it is a incendiary bomb ..A SIMPLE PETROL BOMB ? MOLOTOV WAS THE FOREIGN MINSITER OF USSR .. SO THEY USED THIS BOMB AGAINS THE RUSSIANS IN WORLD WAR 2.. TANKS
79. LUCID INTERVAL SEEN IN EDH
80. GREVIOUS HURT ? IPC 320
81. RATE OF COOLING OF HUMAN BODY ? 0.5-0.7 DEG [ page 123 reddy]
82. [bleep] FRAGMENTS ON IMPACT ? FRANGIBLE [bleep]

SOCIAL AND PREVENTIVE MEDICINE
83. NOT A PART OF MINSTRY OF HEALTH AND FAMILY WELFARE ? MID DAY MEAL PROGRAMME[ UNDER MINISTRY OF EDUCAITON ? 16TH edition park- table in page 447 ] B. IODINE DEF D/S CTRL C. NUTRITIONALL ANEMIA CRT D. VIT A PROPHYLAXIS PROG]
84. AS SENSITITIVITY INCREASES- FALSE NEGATIVE DECREASES- [ sensitivity = 1- FN]
85. MEDIAN INCUBATION PERIOD- TIME REQUIRED FOR 50% CASES TO OCCUR[PARK PAGE 87]
86. 1ST CASE TO INTRODUCED INTO THE POPULATION UNDER STUDY ? PRIMARY CASE [ PAGE 83 16TH EDITION PARK]
87. JAPANESE ENCEPHALITIS VECTOR- CULEX TRITAENORHYNCUS
88. SPREAD FROM VERTEBRATE HOST OT HUMAN- ZOONOSIS [PAGE 81 PARK 16TH]
89. WHICH IS NOT A ZOONOSIS ? SALMONELLA [ A SALMONELLA B. BOVINE TB C. ANTHRAX D. RABIES]
90. THE DISEASE AGENT IS PERMITTED TO PERSIST IN THE COMMUNITY AT A LEVEL WHERE IT CAESES TO BE A PUBLIC HEALTH PROBLEM ACCORDING TO TOLERANCE OF LOCAL POPULATION --- DIESEASE CONTROL [ PAGE 33 16TH PARK]
91. MEASURE OF DISPERSION EXCEPT MEDIAN [A. MEDIAN B. MEAN DEVIATION C. RANGE D. STANDARD DEVIATION] REF PG 594 16TH PARK
92. PICTORIAL DESCRIPTION OF FREQUENCY DISTRIBUTION ? HISTOGRAM [ 592 PARK 16TH EDITION]
93. THE STATISTICAL PROCEDURE BY WHICH THE PARTICIPANTS ARE ALLOCATED INTO GROUPS USUALLY CALLED STUDY AND CONTROL GROUPS, TO RECEIVE OR NOT TO RECEIVE AN EXPERIMENTAL , PREVENTIVE OR THERAPEUTIC PROCEDURE , MANOEUVRE OR INTERVENTION ??.??WHEW? I?m loving it??..- RANDOMISATION PAGE 71 IN 16TH PARK
PS:- MOST OF THE SPM MCQS THIS YEAR ARE DITTO DEFINITION LINES FROM PARK
94. APPLICATION OF DISINFECTIVE MEASURES AS SOON AS POSSIBLE AFTER THE DISCHARGE OF THE INFECTIOUS MATERIAL FROM THE BODY OF AN INFECTED PERSON OR AFTER SOILING OF ARTICLES WITH SUCH INFECTED DISCHARGE- CONCURRENT DISINFECTION ? PAGE 100 PARK 16TH EDITION
95. MOST EFFECTIVE METHOD FOR THE CONTROL OF PULMONARY TB- TREATMENT OF CASES[ A. TREATMNET OF CASES B. BCG VACCINATION C. ISOLATION D?]
96. BARRIER CONTRACEPTIVE ? CHEMICAL METHOD PAGE 333 PARK 16TH
97. MALA D ? COMBINED OCP PG 335 PARK
[snip]. 4-8 PERSONS QUALIFIED TO TALK ABOUT THE TOPIC SIT AND DISCUSS THE GIE PROBLEM OR TOPIC IN FRON T OF A LARGE GROUP OR AUDIENCE-- PANEL DISCUSSION-
99. A SERIES OF CHARTS/POSTER WITH ILLUSTRATIONS PERTAIING TO THE TALK TO BE GIVEN ? FLIP CHARTS [ PAGE 609]

100. IMPAIRMENT ? ANY LOSS OR ABNORMALITY OF PSYCHOLOGICAL, PSYIOLOGICAL OR ANATOMICAL STRUCTURE OR FUNCTION[?? WAS THIS A QUESTION OF KERALA OR RGUHS PLS HELP- CONFUSED]

tornado97 · Credits: 6390 My Scrapbook My Reading List 14 Books

posted by marfan_hi [Fri Mar 03, 2006 12:29 pm ]
MEDICINE&CHEST
1. Which is not seen in CRF?
a. Hyper calcemia
b. Hyperphosphatemia
c. Skeletal deformities
d. Rugger jersey spine
2. Which disease will not cause osteomalacia?
a. Cushing syndrome
b. Primary biliary cirrhosis
c. Hyperthyroidism
d. Hyperparathyroidism
3. Which is not a seronegative arthritis…?
a. Gouty arthritis
b. Reactive arthritis
c. Ankylosing spondilytis
d. Psoriatic arthritis
4. Shrinking lung is seen in...
a. SLE
b. Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis
c. Asbestosis
d. Ca lung
5. most common type of broncogenic carcinoma
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Small cell carcinoma
d. ..
6. Which group of lymphnodes is classically involved in IMN?
a. Posterior cervical harrison16th1046
b. Ant cervical
c. Pretracheal
d. Submandibular
7. Most abundant islet cell type is
a. B cell
b. D cell
c. A cell
d. G cell
8. somatostatin is produced by
a. A cell
b. B cell
c. C cell
d. D cell
9. Drug of choice in allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis...
a. Prednisolone
b. Ketoconazole
c. Griseofulvin
d. Fluconazole
10. Cystic fibrosis is inherited as...
a. AD
b. AR
c. SXR
d. SXD
11. Secondary hypertension is not seen in…
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Cushing syndrome
c. Addison’s disease
d. Conn syndrome
12. Pruritus is not seen in…
a. hyperthyroidism
b. polycythemia rubra Vera
c. hyperparathyroidism
d. uremia
13. Vitamin deficiency which causes spinocerebellar ataxia
a. B12
b. E harrison16th,page409
c. C
d. A
14. Chyne stroke breathing is produced due to
a. CO2 retention
b. Decreased CO2 sensitivityc. Hypoxia
d. Acidosis
15. What is false regarding iron absorption
a. 10% of dietary iron only is absorbed upto 20%max can be absorbed(harrision16th,chapter 90)
b. it occurs in jejunum
c. ascorbic acid increases iron absorption
d. Fe administration increases incidence of breath holding spells
16. Risk stratifying investigation of unstable angina?
a. Trop T harrison16th,page1445
b. CPK
c. LDH
d. …
17. Which is associated with Tuberculosis?
a. Silicosis
b. asbestosis
c. bagassosis
d. bysinosis
18. What is the target BP of CRF
a. 140/90
b. 135/85
c. 130/80 harrison16th,1658
d. 150/100

19. Minimum urine output needed to excrete solutes at highest concentration
a. 100-300ml
b. 300-700ml
c. 700-900ml
d. 50-100ml
20. Antiretroviral drug causing urinary stones
a. Zidovudine
b. Lamivudine
c. Indinavir
d. Nelfinavir
21. Atropine causes
a. Bradycardia
b. Tachycardia
c. Aggravation of heart block
d. Decreased vasomotor tone
22. Drug of choice in motion sickness
a. Hyocine
b. Domperidone
c. Promethazine
d. …..
23. Thalamic lesion will not produce
a. Sensory loss
b. Cog wheel rigidity
c. Sensory disturbance of half of the body
d. …
24. HIV is not seen in
a. Tears
b. Cervical secretion
c. semen
d. blood
25. Cardiac tamponade causes pulsus…
a. Alternans
b. Bigemini
c. Paradoxus
d. Parvus
26. Anemia in CRF is not due to
a. Decreased erythropoietin
b. Increased destruction
c. Decreased production
d. Increased demand
27. Which is rarely seen in secondary hyperthyroidism
a. Cardiac failure
b. Opthalmoplegia
c. Tachycardia
d. Nodular thyroid
28. Which is not seen in heat stroke
a. Rhabdomyolysis
b. Pancreatitis
c. Hypovolemia
d. Seizures
29. Drug used in the prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis
a. Rifampicin
b. Penicillin
c. Chloremphenicol
d. Erythromycin
30. Beta blockers is contraindicated in
a. Post myocardial infarction
b. Follow up after myocardial infarction
c. Heart block
d. …
31. Acute cor pulmonale is caused by
a. Pulmonary embolism
b. COPD
c. Mitral stenosis
d. Emphysema
32. Most common site of brain abscess is
a. Cerebrum
b. Cerebellum
c. Brainstem
d. Medulla
33. Antiarrhythmic causing hypothyroidism
a. Amiodarone
b. Amrinone
c. Digoxin
d. Procainamide
34. The stimulus for parathyroid secretion is?
a. Decreased ionized calcium
b. Decreased total calcium
c. Decreased non ionized calcium
d. ……..
SURGERY
1. What is not true about pyronies disease?
a. It is associated with fibrosis in the penis
b. Associated with dupyutren’s contracture
c. It shows a self limited course
d. Medical treatment is effective
2. Most common cause of unilateral hydrocele is...
a. Pelviurethral obstruction
b. Ureteric stone
c. BPH
d. Constrictions
3. Most common cause of chronic pancreatitis is…
a. Alcohol consumption
b. Gall stone
c. Metabolic disorders
d. …
4. Which is a high grade salivary gland carcinoma?
a. Adenocarcinoma
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
d. ….
5. Which is the most common site of Ca pancreas?
a. Head robbins950
b. Body
c. Tail
d. Neck
6. Whipple triad is seen in
a. Glucogonoma
b. Insulinoma
c. Gastrinoma
d. Ca pancreas
7. Which is a feature of filarial epididymo orchitis
a. Absence of involvement of seminal vesicles on PR
b. Eosinophilia
c. Microfilaria in blood
d. ALL THE ABOVE
8. HSV2 causes
a. Genital herpesb. Genital warts
c. Herpes zoster
d. Genital ulcer
9. Strangury means…
a. Painless terminal Hematuria
b. Painful Hematuria
c. Extreme wretching sensation at the end of micturition causing distress
d. Pain during micturition
10. Most common hernia is
a. Inguinal
b. Femoral
c. Umbilical
d. Epigastric
11. Funiculitis is inflammation of
a. Vas deference
b. Round ligament
c. Epididymis
d. ….
12. Epiplocele is also called
a. Omentocele
b. Omphalocele
c. Enterocele
d. Gastrocele
13. Most common mediastinal tumor is
a. Germ cell tumors
b. Neural tumors
c. Thymoma
d. Lymphoma
14. Cullen sign is
a. Around umbilicus
b. In the flanks
c. In the epigastrium
d. In the back
15. Thyroglossal cyst moves with protrusion of tongue because of attachment to
a. Foramen caecum
b. Thyroid cartilage
c. Pharyngeal wall
d. Tonsils
16. False about paget’s disease of the nipple
a. It is an eczematous condition
b. Associated with underlying carcinoma
c. Leads to destruction of whole nipple
d. Associated with poor prognosis
17. What is the most common cause in an elderly man coming with history of urinary retention?
a. BPH
b. Ca prostate
c. Bladder neck hypertrophy
d. Constriction
18. Which type of breast carcinoma is multicentric and bilateral?
a. Ductal
b. Lobular
c. Colloid
d. Medullary
19. Most common type of breast carcinoma
a. Lobular
b. Ductal
c. Medullary
d. Colloid
20. Most common site of ectopic testis is
a. Lumbar
b. Sup inguinal ring
c. Sup. Perineal pouch
d. Root of penis
21. Tumor arising from totipotent cell
a. Teratoma
b. Seminoma
c. Myoma
d. …..
22. Bag of worms feel is seen in
a. Hernia
b. Varicocele
c. Hydrocele
d. Orchitis
23. What is oligospermia?
a. Sperm count less than 20m/cmm
b. Absence of sperms
c. ….
d. …..
Obs &GYN
1. What is the treatment of choice for Ca vulva stage1?
a. Partial vulvectomy
b. Radical vulvectomy
c. Chemotherapy
d. Radiotherapy
2. Which will not come in between cytotrophoblast and maternal blood?
a. Decidua parietalis
b. Syncitiotrophoblast
c. ….
d. ….
3. Which is the largest skull diameter?
a. Occipito bregmatic
b. Submento bregmatic
c. Mentovertical
d. Occipito frontal
4. Inversion of uterus is not caused by
a. Controlled cord traction
b. Undue fundal pressure
c. Fundal attachment of placenta
d. …..
5. Single most effective drug used in the prophylaxis of gestational trophoblastic disease..
a. Methotrexate
b. Cytosine arabinoside
c. L asparaginase
d. Procarbazine
6. Drug used for the management of ectopic pregnancy
a. Methotrexate
b. Mifeprestone
c. Cytosine arabinoside
d. …..
7. Drug used in genital herpes infection
a. Acyclovir
b. Zidovudine
c. Stavudine
d. Lamivudine
8. What is not true of sertoi cell tumor
a. It secrete female hormone
b. It secrete male hormone
c. It produce feminization surprised?read robbins
d. It can cause gynaecomastia
9. Granulosa cell tumor secrete...
a. Testosterone
b. Estrogen
c. ….
d. Progesterone
10. Which type of Ca cervix is most sensitive to radiotherapy?
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Endometrioid carcinoma
d. …..
11. What is the first step in the management of atonic PPH?
a. IV fluids
b. Uterine packing
c. Internal iliac artery ligation
d. Uterine artery ligation
12. Which screening test is not done in pregnant women?
a. VDRL
b. Hep A
c. Hep B
d. Hep C
13. Which is not used as tocolytic
a. Beta agonist
b. Beta blockers
c. MgSo4
d. Ca channel blockers
14. Pathognomic feature of pelvic abscess
a. Bloody diarrhea
b. Loose stools
c. Mucous diarrhea
d. Constipation
15. Antidote of MgSO4
a. Vit K
b. Ca gluconate
c. Insulin and dextrose
d. NaHCO3
16. Which is not produced by retained placenta?
a. Super involution of uterus
b. Atonic PPH
c. Secondary PPH
d. ….
17. Karyotype of partial mole…
a. 46xy
b. 69xxy
c. 45xo
d. 46xxy
18. Earliest ectopic to undergo rupture is
a. Interstitial
b. Isthmic
c. Ampullary
d. Ovarian
19. 3 pad test is done for...
a. stress incontinence
b. rectovaginal fistula
c. urinary fistula
d. urethrocele
20. Boney’s test is done for
a. Stress incontinence
b. Urinary fistula
c. Urge incontinence
d. ….
21. Which of the following does not favor breech
a. prematurity
b. twin
c. post maturity
d. polyhydramnios
22. Which is not vertically transmitted?
a. CMV
b. Toxoplasmosis
c. HIV
d. HSV
23. In complete breech, what is maintained
a. Universal flexion
b. Universal extension
c. Flexion at hip extension at knee
d. Extension of hip flexion of knee
24. Wt of placenta at term?
a. 300g
b. 500g
c. 700g
d. 100g
Paediatrics

1. Which is the most common cause of temper tantrums in children?
a. Autism
b. Attention deficit hyperactivity
c. Improper teaching of habits
d. Behavioral problems
2. Which is uncommon in TOF?
a. Brain abscess
b. Infective endocarditis
c. Cardiac failure
d. Cerebral venous thrombosis
3. SSPE IS A COMPLICATON OF
a. MEASLES
b. MUMPS
c. RUBELLA
d. CHICKEN POX
4. A child came to casualty with tetany what will you do?
a. Inj. Phenytoin
b. Inj. Phenobarbitone
c. Inj. Calcium gluconate
d. Wait and watch
5. Most common solid tumor of childhood?
a. Ganglioneuroma
b. Neuroblastoma
c. Retinoblastoma
d. Wilms tumor
6. Wilms tumor commonly present as
a. Hematuria
b. Abdominal pain
c. Abdominal mass
d. Intracranial metastasis
7. Most important factor determining closure of ductus arteriosus is
a. Prostaglandins
b. Oxygen tension
c. Pulmonary pressure
d. …..
8. Organism causing diarrhea in young children commonly
a. Rota virus
b. Calci virus
c. E coli
d. Staphylococcus
9. 2nd phase of bronchial asthma can be prevented by
a. beta agonists
b. steroid
c. xanthine derivatives
d. anticholinergics
10. Which is characteristic of hemophilia?
a. Petichae
b. Hemarthroses
c. Mucocutaneous bleeds
d. Intracranial bleeds
11. Which is not seen in Dushne muscular dystrophy
a. Psudohypertrophy
b. Intellectual impairment
c. Tongue fasciculations
d. SXR inheritance
12. Which is seen in APGAR score?
a. Color
b. Bilirubin
c. Blood group
d. …..
ENT
1. All the following complication of otitis media are extra cranial except
a. Citelli’s abscess
b. Bezold’s abscess
c. Peri sinus abscess
d. Luc’s abscess
2. Most common nasal polyp
a. Ethmoidal
b. Sphenoid
c. Atrochoanal
d. Frontal
3. Dysphonia plica ventricularis is produced from
a. Vocal cord
b. Ventricular fold
c. Aretenoid
d. Epiglottis
4. Tracheostomy opening is put on… tracheal rings
a. 1-2
b. 2-3
c. 4-7
d. 5-6
5. Malignant otitis externa is caused by
a. Streptococcus
b. Pseudomonas
c. Staphylococcus
d. Malignancy
6. Most frequent complication of Tracheostomy?
a. Surgical Emphysema
b. Aspiration
c. Recc. Laryngeal nerve injury
d. bleeding
Ophthalmology
1. Herpes virus causes
a) Dentritic ulcer
b) Serpigenous ulcer
c) Hypopion corneal ulcer
d) Corneal erosion
2. Salmon patch is seen in
a) Retinitis pigmentosa
b) Interstitial keratitis
c) Cateract
d) Tuberous sclerosis
3. Which of the following is not a cause of congestion of optic disc?
a) Optic glioma
b) Glaucomatous optic atrophy
c) Central retinal vein occlusion
d) Raised ICT
4. Progressive pterigyum causes
e. Myopia
f. Hypermetropia
g. Astigmatism
h. Cataract
5. Cobblestone appearance is seen in…
a. Trachoma
b. Bacterial conjunctivitis
c. Vernal conjunctivitis
d. Viral conjunctivitis
6. Colored halo not seen in…
a. Glaucoma
b. Purulent conjunctivitis
c. Early stage of cataract
d. Spring catarrh
7. Ulcer serpans is caused by
a. Pneumococcus
b. Corynebacterium
c. Moorens ulcer
d. Herpes virus
8. Most serious injury to eye is caused by...
a. Nitric acid
b. Hcl
c. Sulphuric acid
d. Lime
9. Most common intra ocular tumor of childhood
a. Malignant melanoma
b. Retinoblastoma
c. Hemangioma
d. Rhabdomyoma
10. Earliest sign of Vit A deficiency
a. Night blindness
b. Corneal xerosis
c. Conjuctival xerosis
d. Bitot spots
11. Phaco emulsification is done with
a. Laser
b. Ultrasound
c. Cryo
d. …..
SKIN1. Drug which is topically useful in taenia cruris
a. Fluconazole
b. Griseofulvin
c. Terbinafin
d. ….
2. Slow growing tumor of skin which rarely metastasizes to lymphnodes is
a. Melanoma
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Basal cell carcinoma
d. Angiosarcoma
3. Which is used in keratinized skin?
a. Salicylic acidb. ….
c. ….
d. ….
4. Permethrin is used in the topical treatment of
a. Scabies
b. Tinea
c. Acne
d. Psoriasis
ANASTHESIA
1. Which is an ideal method to prevent aspiration pneumonia?
a. Cuffed endotracheal tube
b. Inhalational anesthesia
c. Increase intraabdominal pressure
d. …..
2. Propofol, Thiopentone are…
a. Inducing agents
b. maintainance agents
c. Reversing agents
d. …
3. Pt on steroid therapy require ….. during surgery
a. Hydrocortisone
b. Insulin
c. Both
d. None
4. Which is not true about anesthesia in a patient with IHD?
a. Control of HT need not be done prior to surgery
b. Anemia need not be corrected prior to surgery
c. Recent MI is a contraindication for elective GA
d. ……
5. Best devise for selective bronchial intubation is
a. ET tube
b. Endobronchial tube
c. Tracheostomy tube
d. …
6. In case of an Inhalational anesthetic its diffusion is
a. Directly proportional to water solubility
b. Inversely proportional particle size
c.…
d. …..
RADIOLOGY&RADIOTHERAPY
1. Rat tailing in lower end of esophagus is seen in
a. Achlasia cardia
b. Infiltrating carcinoma
c. Esophageal diverticulum
d. It’s a nonspecific sign according to latest news
2. Radio nucleotide of choice for renal function
a. DTPA
b. MIBG
c. Thallium
d. …..
3. Adder head appearance is seen in
a. Ureterocele
b. Duplication of ureter
c. Urethral diverticulum
d. Megaureter
4. True about radiotherapy during pregnancy
a. No shielding is given
b. Shielding given pregnancy continued
c. MTP advised prior to RT
d. MTP advised after RT
5. Fatal dose of radiation
a. 1 rad
b. 5 rads
c. 50 rads
d. 500 rads
6. Sentinel loop in acute pancreatitis is
a. Esophagus
b. Duodenum Trichur CME note
c. Jejunum
d. Stomach
7. Which of the following is a radiolucent stone?
a. Uric acid
b. Oxalate
c. Cystein
d. Triple phosphate
8. Chain of lakes appearance is seen in
a. Carcinoma pancreas
b. Chronic pancreatitis
c. Acute pancreatitis
d. Pancreatic pseudo cyst
9. Double bubble sign is seen in
a. Annular pancreas
b. Lobular pancreas
c. Ca pancreas
d. Pancreatitis
Psychiatry
1. Which is not caused by phenothiazines?
a. Akathisia
b. Tardive dyskinatia
c. Urinary retention
d. Diarrhea
2. Schizophrenia is characterized by…
a. Delusion and hallucinations
b. Loss of consciousness
c. Mood changes
d. …….
3. beta blockers are effective in
a. Mania
b. Anxiety
c. Depression
d. Schizophrenia
4. Not true of bulimia nervosa?
a. Amenorrhea
b. Binge eating
c. Purgation n vomiting
d. Normal body contour maintained
5. Not true of anorexia nervosa
a. Loss of 10% of body wt
b. Amenorrhea
c. Over consciousness about body contour
d. Loss of weight according to the patient
6. ECT is most effective in
a. Conversion disorder
b. Severe depression
c. Mania
d. Disociative disorder
7. Hyper awareness of ones own body is called
a. Somatisation
b. Hypochondriac
c. Somatoform
d. Conversion
8. Which is not a tricyclic antidepressant?
a. Amytryptiline
b. Fluoxetine
c. Imipramine
d. Amoxapine
orthopaedics
1. Chronic flurosis is caused by drinking water with fluoride content of…
a. 1-5ppm
b. 5-10ppm no idea
c. >10ppm
d. <1ppm
2. Psoriatic arthritis classically involves
a. PIP joint
b. DIP joint read robbins
c. MCP joint
d. CMP joint
3. Most common malignant bone tumor is
a. Ewing’s sarcoma
b. Osteo sarcoma
c. Metastasis
d. Chondrosarcoma
4. Most common benign tumor of the bone
a. Osteo chondroma
b. Osteoid osteoma
c. Enchondroma
d. Bone cyst
5. Painful arc is due to
a. Sub acromnial bursitis
b. Rotator cuff injury
c. Short head of biceps injury
d. Latisimus dorsi injury
6. Ortolani test is done in
a. DDH
b. Perthes disease
c. ….
d. …..
7. Bony ankylosis is seen in
a. TB arthritis
b. Septic arthritis
c. Psoriatic arthritis
d. Rheumatoid arthritis
8. Diagnostic investigation of multiple myeloma
a. Lytic bone lesions
b. Bence Jones protein
c. Alkaline phosphatase
d. Serum electrophoresis

tornado97 · Credits: 6390 My Scrapbook My Reading List 14 Books

Fri Mar 03, 2006 12:28 pm (10 months ago) #65

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There are the questions with answers. Answers are underlined. Sorry for any mistakes. Please correct them too.
Anatomy
1. Lymphatic drainage of breast is not to…
a. internal mammary
b. supraclavicular
c. axillary
d. inguinal
2. Chief inspiratory muscle is…
a. diaphragm
b. Pect. Major
c. Pect. Minor
d. ext. intercostals
3. Root value of phrenic nerve
a. C3,4,5b. C2,3,4
c. C5,6,7
d. C1,2,3
4. short head of biceps femoris is supplied by
a. obturator nerve
b. femoral nerve
c. tibial part of sciatic nerve
d. common peroneal nerve
5. Which is not a content of spermatic cord?
a. Cremasteric artery
b. Testicular artery
c. Pampiniform plexus
d. Ilioinguinal nerve
6. superior pacreatico duodenal is a branch of
a. splenic artery
b. celiac trunk
c. gastro duodenal artery
d. superior mesenteric
7. Inflammation of meckel’s diverticulum may produce symptoms resembling...
a. appendicitis
b. colitis
c. gastro enteritis
d. int. obstruction
8. The hepato pancreatic duct opens into
a. 1st part of duodenum
b. 2nd part
c. 3rad part
d. 4th part
9. the left suprarenal vein drain into
a. IVC
b. Left renal vein
c. Rt renal vein
d. Portal vein
10. Ophthalmic artery passes through
a. Optic canal
b. Superior orbital fissure
c. Inferior orbital fissure
d. Infraorbital foramen
11. Which is not a part of waldeyer’s ring?
a. Lingual tonsil
b. Palatine tonsil
c. Adenoids
d. Thyroid gland
12. false regarding thyroid glad
a. Dense capillary plexus deep capsule
b. Capsule is formed by condensation of prevertebral fascia
c. It moves with deglutition with larynx
d. It has two lobes
13. posterior belly of digastric is developed from
a. 1st arch
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th
14. basilar artery divides to form
a. Posterior cerebral
b. Posterior inferior cerebellar
c. Ant cerebral
d. Middle cerebral
15. inferior sagittal sinus joins the great cerebral vein to form
a. inferior petrosal sinus
b. straight sinus
c. transverse sinus
d. occipital sinus
16. Which is the only abductor of vocal cord?
a. Lateral cryco aretenoid
b. Post cryco aretenoid
c. Cricothyroid
d. Vocalis
17. Inferior tibiofibular is a…
a. Synchondrosis
b. Syndesmosis
c. Symphysis
d. Synarthrosis
18. Cells lining the cerebral cavities?
a. Astrocytes
b. Ependymal cells
c. Oligo dendrocytes
d. Shawn cells
Physiology
1. The rapid depolarization in cardiac muscle is due to
a. Ca++
b. Na++
c. K++
d. Mg++
2. The resting membrane potential of smooth muscle cells is
a. -20 to -30
b. -50- to -70
c. -70 to -90
d. -90 to -110
3. False about saltatory conduction
a. It occurs in nonmyelinated nerves
b. Depend on nodes of ranveir
c. It’s a fast process
d. Lower energy is consumed
4. FALSE about excitatory post synaptic potential
a. Its localized
b. Summating
c. It weans of in exponential rate
d. Hyperpolarisation occurs
5. central chemo receptors are stimulated by
a. H+ ions
b. Co2
c. Hypoxia
d. Hco3
6. prolactin inhibiting substance is
a. dopamine
b. adrenalin
c. thyroxin
d. ACTH
7. Duration of atrial systole
a. .53
b. .28
c. .08
d. .11
8. Peripheral resistance is inversely proportional to
a. Diameter
b. Vasomotor tone
c. Cardiac output
d. Viscosity
9. ADH is released in
a. Increased ECF volume
b. Increased ECF osmolarity
c. Increased BP
d. ……
10. Which is ideal for GFR estimation
a. Inulin clearance
b. PAHA clearance
c. Urea clearance
d. All the above
11. Lifespan of RBC is...
a. 100days
b. 120 days
c. 60 days
d. 160 days
12. Which of the following is true about surfactant
a. It decreases the compliance
b. It degreases pulmonary edema
c. It increases surface tension
d. It enhance the collapse of alveoli
13. What is the pressure of inspiration?
a. Intra plural
b. Trans pulmonary
c. Trans chest wall
d. …
14. Heart muscle acts as a functional synctitium because
a. Striations
b. Gap junctions
c. Long action potential
d. It is involuntary
15. Bleeding time is done to assess
a. Platelet function
b. Intrinsic pathway
c. Extrinsic pathway
d. Coagulation cascade
16. Angiotensin is activated in
a. lung
b. liver
c. kidney
d. intestine
17. Which is the corpus luteum salvage hormone which maintains corpus luteum
a. B-HCG
b. FSH
c. AFP
d. Estrogen
18. Velocity of blood flow is inversely proportional to
a. Square of radius
b. Compliance of vessel wall
c. Cardiac output
d. Stroke volume
19. Systolic BP is directly proportional to
a. Compliance of vessel wall
b. Stroke volume
c. Radius of vessels
d. …..
20. normal pco2 of arterial blood
a. 20
b. 40
c. 60
d. 80
Biochemistry
1. In humans carbohydrates are stored as…
a. Glucose
b. Glycogen
c. Starch
d. Cellulose
2. NADP is not needed in
a. Steroid synthesis
b. Urea synthesis
c. Fatty acid synthesis
d. Reduced glutathion synthesis
3. Which acts a an antioxidant at low oxygen tension
a. Vit C chumma! any idea?
b. Beta carotene
c. Vit E
d. Selenium
4. VMA is a metabolite of
a. Adrenaline
b. Thyroxin
c. Serotonin
d. Growth hormone
5. Xeroderma pigmentosa is due to
a. Base excision defect
b. Nucleotide excision defect
c. Sos repair defect
d. Cross linking defect
6. Which of the following blotting technique does not exist?
a. Western
b. Southern
c. Eastern
d. Northern
7. PCR is used in
a. Medico legal
b. Amplification of gene
c. Identification of organism
d. All
8. Proteins seen in chromosomes are called
a. Nucleotides
b. Histones
c. Apoproteins
d. Glycoprotein
9. Strand of DNA from which mRNA is formed by transcription is called
a. Template read vasudevan
b. Anti template
c. Coding
d. Transcript
10. Mesosomes are prokaryotic counterpart of eukaryotic….
a. Mitochondria
b. ER
c. Golgi apparatus
d. Nucleus
11. Vitamin given in pregnant women to prevent neural tube defects
a. Folic acid
b. B12
c. Vit c
d. Vit A
12. Most essential fatty acid is
a. Linolenic acid
b. Linoleic acid
c. Archdonic acid
d. Eicosapentanoic acid
13. Which is not an essential amino acid?
a. Tryptophan
b. Threonine
c. Histidine
d. Cystein
14. Structure of myoglobin
a. Monomer
b. Homodimer
c. Heterodimer
d. Homotetramer
15. Enzyme deficient in criggler najer syndrome
a. UDP glucoronyl transferase 1
b. UDP glucoronyl transferase 2
c. Bilirubin synthase
d. …..
16. Which is not an aromatic amino acid?
a. Phenyl alanine
b. Tyrosine
c. Tryptophan
d. Valine
17. Which does not have cholesterol
a. Vit D
b. Estrogen
c. Adrenalin
d. Progesterone
18. Which bond resist denaturation?
a. Peptide (on denaturation, primary structure is maintained, which in turn is made by peptide bonds!)
b. Hydrogen
c. Disulphide
d. Electrostatic
19. In which phase DNA doubling occur
a. G1
b. S
c. G2
d. M
20. Albinism is due to
a. Decreased melanocytes
b. Focal loss of melanocytes
c. Decreased melanin synthesis
d. Generalized vitiligo
21. Normal serum Bilirubin level
a. .3-1.2
b. 2-4
c. .1-.5
d. 1-2
Microbiology
1. Which of the following is not an RNA virus
a. Hep A
b. Hep B
c. Hep C
d. Hep D
2. Time interval between introduction of bacteria into a culture medium and starting of multiplication is
a. Lag phase
b. Log phase
c. Stationary phase
d. Decline phase
3. Sporulation occurs during
a. Lag phase
b. Log phase
c. Stationary phase
d. Decline
4. Which method is used for destroying useless hospital waste products
a. Hot air oven
b. Incineration
c. Autoclave
d. Heat sterilization
5. Which of the following is not a sporicide?
a. Gluteraldehyde
b. Alcohol
c. Formaldehyde
d. Phenol
6. The organism causing serious form of weil’s disease
a. Leptospira interorgans
b. Leptospira icterohaemorragicae
c. Borelia
d. …
7. Which form of actinimycosis is not seen?
a. Cervico facial
b. Thoracic
c. Abdominal refer ananthanarayanan page 400
d. Heel
8. Organism with sterols on their cell wall...
a. Mycoplasma
b. Bacillus
c. Streptococcus
d. Spirillum
9. Ability of an organism to invade and multiply in the host is called
a. Infectivity
b. Virulence
c. Pathogenicity
d. Infestivity
10. Which is not seen in botulism
a. Vomiting
b. Diarrhea
c. Constipation
d. Weakness
11. Which of the following is not a malignancy causing DNA virus
a. EBV
b. HBV
c. HPV
d. HSV
12. The process by which bacterium receives genetic material from surrounding medium is called
a. Transduction
b. Transformation
c. Lysogenic conversion
d. Conjugation
13. Which organism is as the control of autoclave?
a. Mycobacterium
b. Bacillus stearothermophilus
c. Corynebacterium
d. Clostridium perferingens
14. Water can perineum is caused by
a. Gonococcus
b. Ureoplasma
c. Streptococcus
d. Chlamydia
15. In vitro test for virulence of Pneumococcus
a. Intra peritoneal inoculation in mice
b. Rat tail inoculation
c. ….
d. …..
16. Bacteria surviving alkaline media
a. Vibrio
b. E coli
c. Salmonella
d. Shigella
Pharmacology
1. Which is long acting and potent NSAID?
a. Piroxicam thrupadi
b. Ibuprofen
c. Ketoprofen
d. Metamizole
2. Drug having analgesic and modest anti-inflammatory property
a. Paracetamol
b. Nimesulide
c. Ketorolac thrupadi
d. Diflunizole
3. The dose related side effect of Iso nicotinamide hydralazide(INH) is
a. Hyper uricemia
b. Hepatotoxicity
c. Renal toxicity
d. ….
4. diuretic of choice for a patient who has hyprcalciuria and renal stones
a. frusemide
b. thiazide
c. spirinolactone
d. …
5. Orally effective drug in candidiasis
a. Miconazole
b. Ketoconazole
c. Clotrimazole
d. Iconazole
6. Drug of choice of actinimycosis
a. Penicillin
b. Sulfonamides
c. Tetracycline
d. Azithromicin
7. Which of the following is a drug with high therapeutic index?
a. Penicillin
b. Chloremphenicol
c. Tetracycline
d. Erythromycin
8. Which of the following is not used in renal failure?
a. Pefloxacin
b. Cephaloridine
c. Doxycycline
d. ….
9. Metronidazole is a
a. Luminal amoebicide
b. Tissue amoebicide
c. Both
d. None
10. Which of the following is not used in enterococcal infection?
a. Vancomycin
b. Linezolide
c. Teichoplanin
d. Cephalexin
11. Norfloxacin is used in
a. Systemic bacterial infection
b. Bacterial diarrheas
c. Localized abscess
d. Pneumonia
12. Dose of acetaminophen in children
a. 5-10mg/kg/day
b. 5-10mg/kg/dose
c. 10-15mg/kg/day
d. 10-15mg/kg/dose
13. Benzoil peroxide is effective in
a. Acne
b. Psoriasis
c. Contact dermatitis
d. Tinea
14. What is not true of bupivacaine
a. Less cardio toxic than lignocaine
b. Long acting
c. Mixing with adrenaline helps to use higher amount of it
d. Used for regional anesthesia
15. Which of the following is a mood stabilizer?
a. Li
b. Haloperidol
c. Amytryptiline
d. Diazepam
16. Digoxin act by inhibiting
a. Na K ATPase
b. Ca channels
c. K channels
d. Adenyl cyclase
17. Orally effective iron chelating agent
a. EDTA
b. Defriprome
c. Penicillamine
d. BAL
18. beta lactamase resistant penicillin
a. penicillin
b. cloxacillin
c. carbenicillin
d. ampicillin
19. Drug of choice for typhoid fever
a. Ciprofloxacin
b. Ampicillin
c. Chloremphenicol
d. Tetracycline
20. GTN is given sublingually why?
a. To avoid first pass metabolism
b. Rapid effect
c. Gastric irritation
d. To avoid side effects
21. Antidote of Digoxin
a. Potassium
b. Lignocaine
c. Fab fragment
d. Propanolol
22. Ciprofloxacin act by
a. Inhibiting protein synthesis
b. Inhibiting DNA function
c. Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
d. Inhibiting glycolysis
23. Which of the following is an antifungal
a. Flucytosin
b. Cytosine arabinoside
c. 5 fluourasil
d. Procarbazine
Pathology
1. Which tumor arises from epiphysis?
a. Osteoclastoma
b. Osteochondroma
c. Osteoid osteoma
d. Enchondroma
2. TNF is secreted by activated…
a. Macrophages
b. Neutrophils
c. Lymphocytes
d. Eosinophils
3. Anitskov’s cells are modified…
a. Neutrophils
b. Macrophages
c. Lymphocytes
d. Eosinophils
4. Plasma cells are activated
a. B cells
b. T calls
c. Macrophages
d. Monocytes
5. Most common glomerulonephritis is
a. Membranous GN
b. IgA nephropathy
c. PSGN
d. RPGN
6. Ig active in type 1 hypersensitivity
a. A
b. E
c. D
d. G
7. IG which is seen in breast milk and secretions
a. A
b. E
c. G
d. D
8. Most common tumor of heart
a. Myxoma
b. Fibroma
c. Myoma
d. Angioma
9. Common Karyotype of complete mole
a. 46xx
b. 47xxy
c. 69xxy
d. 45xo
10. Benign tumor of the muscle is called
a. Leiomyoma
b. Rhabdomyoma
c. Fibroma
d. Angiomyoma
11. Which is the feature of malignant pheochromocytoma
a. Vascular invasion
b. Metastasis
c. Abnormal mitoses
d. Capsular invasion
12. The process in which leucocytes are arranged along the endothelium is called
a. Margination
b. Rolling
c. Diapedesis
d. Chemo taxis
13. Cell involved in immunity against parasitic infestation
a. Neutrophils
b. Eosinophils
c. Basophil
d. Lymphocyte
14. Which is not a feature of neoplastic cells
a. Hyperchromasia
b. Pleotropism
c. Atypical mitoses
d. Nucleo cytoplasmic ratio 1:4
15. Condition which does not have granuloma
a. TB
b. Sarcoidosis
c. Leprosy
d. Infarction
16. Aflatoxin b causes which cancer?
a. Liver
b. Lung
c. Kidney
d. Stomach
17. Which is the most common thyroid cancer?
a. Papillary
b. Medullary
c. Follicular
d. Anaplastic
18. Anti GBM antibodies are seen in
a. Wagner’s granulamatosis
b. Good pastures syndrome
c. PAN
d. SLE
19. False about chemokines
a. Pleotropic
b. Produced by single type of cells
c. Specific action
d. Involved in inflammation
20. Hyaline arteriosclerosis is seen in
a. Malignant hypertension
b. Benign hypertension
c. PAN
d. ……
Forensic MEDICINE
1. Section of IPC dealing with grievous injury
a. 375
b. 376
c. 320
d. 302
2. [bleep] which disintegrates into fragments on hitting the target is
a. Dum dum [bleep]
b. Yawning [bleep]
c. Fangible [bleep]
d. Incendiary [bleep]
3. Rate of cooling of body after death
a. .5-.7 C/hr
b. 1-2 C /hr
c. 2-4C/hr
d. .2-.4 C/hr
4. Lucid interval is seen in
a. Extradural
b. Subdural
c. Subarachnoid
d. Intracerebral
5. Bad trip is associated with
a. LSD
b. Cocaine
c. Cannabis
d. Morphine
6. Hallucination of worm crawling over the body occurs in
a. Morphine
b. Cocaine
c. Cannabis
d. LSD
7. A bruise becomes yellow on...
a. 2-3 days
b. 5-6days
c. 7-12 days
d. after 2wks
8. Trichology is the study of
a. Hair
b. Nail
c. Skin
d. Bones
9. The disorder associated with impulse to consume alcohol is called
a. Kleptomania
b. Dipsomania
c. Pyromania
d. Nymphomania
10. Patient coming to doctors room is a type of … consent
a. Informed
b. Implied
c. Written
d. Verbal
11. Molotov Cocktail is
a. An incidiary bomb
b. Drug combination
c. Mixture of liquor
d. ……..
COMMUNITY MEDICINE
1. Division of study subjects into case and control is called
a. Matching
b. Randomization
c. Blinding
d. Stratification
2. Which of the following is a characteristic of a sensitive test?
a. Low false positive
b. High true positive
c. High true negative
d. Low false negative
3. Disease under natural conditions transmitted from vertebrate animal to man is...
a. Zoonoses
b. Exotic
c. Epizoonotic
d. Amphixenotic
4. Holder method of pasteurization is not effective to kill
a. Brucella
b. Coxiella
c. Mycobacterium
d. …
5. The first case introduced into the case study group is called
a. Index case
b. Primary case
c. Initial case
d. ….
6. Period during which 50% of cases in the community develop illness after introduction of the causating agent is called
a. Incubation period
b. Mean incubation period
c. Serial interval
d. Mean interval
7. Loss off an anatomical structure of a physiological function is called
a. Disability
b. Impairment
c. Handicap
d. Paralysis
8. Which of the following is not a bacterial zoonosis
a. Bovine TB
b. Anthrax
c. Brucellosis
d. Rabies
9. Mala N is…
a. POP pill
b. Mini pill
c. Combined pill
d. Once a month pill
10. Which of the following is a barrier contraception
a. Male sterilization
b. Female sterilization
c. Spermicidal
d. Natural
11. A series of posters which are continuous and gives an idea about a subject is called
a. Flanel graph
b. Exhibit
c. Model
d. Flip chart
12. Which programme is not under Dept. of health and family welfare?
a. Vit A prophylaxis
b. Mid day meal (Of education ministry)
c. Nutritional anemia prophylaxis programme
d. Iodine deficiency control programme
13. Best method to prevent the transmission of TB
a. Chemoprophylaxis
b. Treatment of case
c. Isolation
d. BCG
14. Which is not a measure of dispersion
a. Mean deviation
b. Standard deviation
c. Mode
d. Range
15. In a standard normal curve
a. SD=0
b. MEAN=1
c. SD=1
d. …..
16. Graphical representation of frequency distribution curve is
a. Pie chart
b. Bar diagram
c. Histogram
d. Pictogram
17. A group of 4-8 qualified discussing a topic in front of people is called
a. Group discussion
b. Panel discussion
c. Symposium
d. Lecture
18. Japanese encephalitis is transmitted by
a. Aedes
b. Culex
c. Anopheles
d. Mansonia
19. The sputum from one patient is disinfected immediately following expectoration, this is
a. Concurrent
b. Precurrent
c. …
d. …..
20. Cognition is…
a. Skill
b. Practice
c. Knowledge
d. …..
21. If a disease is allowed to persist in a community where it ceases to be a health problem, its called
a. Eradication
b. Elimination
c. Control
d. Prevention[/u]

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