Page 1 of 1: obg and gyn

dinaridi · Credits: 2830 My Scrapbook

The ovarian lesion most likely to undergo torsion is
1) a dermoid cyst.
2) a papillary serous cystadenocarcinoma.
3) a papillary pseudomucinous cystadenoma.
4) an endometrial cyst.
5) an inflammatory cyst.

At 39 weeks' gestation in a multigravida, a fetus is in a breech confirmed by ultrasound, and the pelvic diameters appear to be within normal limits. The breech is well down in the pelvis, and the estimated weight of the fetus is 3200 g. There are no uterine contractions, and the membranes are intact. Which one of the following represents the best immediate management of this patient?
1) cesarean section
2) nonstress test
3) oxytocin challenge test
4) amniocentesis and medical induction
5) continuing antenatal care

A healthy 35-year-old woman with regular menses presents with a 2-year history of primary infertility. Her husband has fathered three children from a previous marriage. Her only significant past illness was a perforated appendix and a history of hospital admission for possible pelvic inflammatory disease. Temperature graphs are compatible with ovulatory cycles. Pelvic examination is unremarkable. The most important further investigation would be
1) lupus anticoagulant.
2) endometrial biopsy.
3) hysterosalpingogram.
4) semen analysis.
5) postcoital test.

masawa · Credits: 4537 My Scrapbook

1) a dermoid cyst.

5) continuing antenatal care

3) hysterosalpingogram.

iffat7865 · Credits: 843 My Scrapbook

1) a dermoid cyst.

5) continuing antenatal care

3) hysterosalpingogram, are the answers

honeyam5 · Credits: 2249 My Scrapbook

rite

maryana · Credits: 7940 My Scrapbook

The ovarian lesion most likely to undergo torsion is
1) a dermoid cyst-----------.
2) a papillary serous cystadenocarcinoma.
3) a papillary pseudomucinous cystadenoma.
4) an endometrial cyst.
5) an inflammatory cyst.

At 39 weeks' gestation in a multigravida, a fetus is in a breech confirmed by ultrasound, and the pelvic diameters appear to be within normal limits. The breech is well down in the pelvis, and the estimated weight of the fetus is 3200 g. There are no uterine contractions, and the membranes are intact. Which one of the following represents the best immediate management of this patient?
1) cesarean section
2) nonstress test
3) oxytocin challenge test
4) amniocentesis and medical induction
5) continuing antenatal care---------

A healthy 35-year-old woman with regular menses presents with a 2-year history of primary infertility. Her husband has fathered three children from a previous marriage. Her only significant past illness was a perforated appendix and a history of hospital admission for possible pelvic inflammatory disease. Temperature graphs are compatible with ovulatory cycles. Pelvic examination is unremarkable. The most important further investigation would be
1) lupus anticoagulant.
2) endometrial biopsy.
3) hysterosalpingogram.
4) semen analysis.
5) postcoital test.----------

honeyam5 · Credits: 2249 My Scrapbook

post coital test we do rarely
what you think???? i would go with #3

bloater · Credits: 1258 My Scrapbook

1)dermoid
5)waiting for the vag delivery
3)salphingogram to confirm normal Anatomy after PID

maryana · Credits: 7940 My Scrapbook

To manage infertility I use the next steps in looing for tha cause of infertility:
1. Semen analysis - ok in this case
2. Mucous factor - unknown in this case
3. ovulation - ok in this case
4. tubal factors - we need to do hysterosalpingogram, but I choose postcoital test to rule out mucous factors first,
Please, correct me if I am wrong
5. Do laparoscopy if the above investigation are OK as the last step.

bloater · Credits: 1258 My Scrapbook

We should solve the problem by condensing the given information only.Yes, according to the order of investigation, mucus factor is just next come. Let's look at the people's past history. We confirm they have had nearly normal sexual behavior and have made normal outcome of that behavior(babies for each). Mucus factor is not plausible when we know about that. The only suspected abnormality comes out from 'her' past medical history of perforated appendix and PID.

doctormoony · Credits: 6682 My Scrapbook

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