Page 1 of 1: please help

tisa · Credits: 176 My Scrapbook

there this one question that really bothered me a lot during my comprehensive exams in ob, i don't know what answer is correct... the question goes...
a 21 year old, G1P0, 48 weeks AOG, was seen at the OB-GYN OPD with a BP of 130/80.Internal examination revealed a 3 cm dilated cervix, 80% effaced ,station minus 1. what would be the most appropiate action for this patient?
a. do a non- stress test and repeat after a week.
b. admit for cesarean section.
c. admit for induction of labor.
d. complete bed rest and observe for progress for labor.

the answer is d, is it correct? and can someone explain me why...thanks!

mumai20 · Credits: 385 My Scrapbook

is the AOG really 48 weeks?

mumai20 · Credits: 385 My Scrapbook

my answer would be induce labor, but the aog seems to be a typographical error...

ariendohr · Credits: 110 My Scrapbook

48 wks is probly a typo error

meristem · Credits: 526 My Scrapbook

i agree... 48 weeks aog has got to be a typo. maybe its 38 weeks aog. if thats the case... i'd go for induce labor.

cleng · Credits: 200 My Scrapbook

i also agree, letter c

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