Page 1 of 2: MCQ "2"

wasem · Credits: 8592 My Scrapbook

Question 1. The following statements are correctly paired:

a. Idiopathic - cause unknown
True False

b. Pathogenesis - direct cause of disease
True False

c. Congenital - present at birth
True False

d. Prognosis - likely disease outcome
True False

e. Aetiology - mechanism of disease production
True False

Question 2. The following are examples of genetic diseases:

a. Haemophilia (factor VIII deficiency)
True False

b. Down's syndrome
True False

c. Colour blindness
True False

d. Munchausen's syndrome
True False

e. Pulmonary asbestosis
True False

Question 3. The following are correctly paired:

a. Incidence - number of cases in a population at a given time
True False

b. Symptoms - features of an illness that the patient notices
True False

c. Prevalence - number of new cases in a population over a given time
True False

d. Morbidity - number of deaths in a population
True False

e. Sensitivity of a screening test - number of patients with the disease who have a positive screening test
True False

Question 4. The following are correctly paired:

a. Tiredness - clinical sign
True False

b. Prognosis - how the patient's disease will behave
True False

c. Tuberculosis - PAS stain
True False

d. Biopsy - autopsy procedure
True False

e. High blood pressure - clinical sign
True False

Question 5. The following statements are correct:

a. The immunoperoxidase technique demonstrates cellular production of antigens in tissues
True False

b. Western blotting techniques are used to analyse DNA
True False

c. Squamous cell carcinoma may produce cytokeratin intermediate filaments
True False

d. Frozen sections are a rapid diagnostic technique which can be used intraoperatively
True False

e. In situ hybridisation techniques can be used to examine RNA in tissues
True False

Question 6. The following are correctly paired:

a. Hepatocytes - permanent cells
True False

b. Cardiac muscle damage - regeneration
True False

c. G0 phase - labile cells
True False

d. Renal epithelial cells - stable cells
True False

e. Hyperplasia - permanent cells
True False

Question 7. The following statements are correct:

a. Bodybuilders can build up muscle indefinitely on a high-protein diet
True False

b. Smokers' bronchial epithelium is usually atrophic
True False

c. The lactating breast shows epithelial hyperplasia
True False

d. Oestrogen-producing ovarian cancer can cause endometrial hyperplasia
True False

e. The regenerative capacity of the liver is due to the fact that liver cells are labile
True False

Question 8. The following statements are correct:

a. Atrophy involves necrosis of cells
True False

b. Metaplasia inevitably leads to neoplasia
True False

c. Growth factors may inhibit cell growth or division
True False

d. The myocardium of a hypertensive patient contains more myocardial cells than is normal
True False

e. The G1, S and G2 phases of the cell cycle together make up the interphase
True False

Question 9. The following statements are correct:

a. Caseous necrosis is characteristically caused by ischaemia
True False

b. Carbon tetrachloride causes cell injury through free radicals
True False

c. Disaggregation of polyribosomes is an ultrastructural feature of reversible cell injury
True False

d. The brain is a common site for gangrenous necrosis
True False

e. Autolysis is characterised by a vital reaction to dead cells
True False

ujwals · Credits: 4860 My Scrapbook

Question 1. The following statements are correctly paired:

a. Idiopathic - cause unknown
True

b. Pathogenesis - direct cause of disease
False

c. Congenital - present at birth
True

d. Prognosis - likely disease outcome
True

e. Aetiology - mechanism of disease production
False

Question 2. The following are examples of genetic diseases:

a. Haemophilia (factor VIII deficiency)
True

b. Down's syndrome
True

c. Colour blindness
True

d. Munchausen's syndrome
False

e. Pulmonary asbestosis
False

Question 3. The following are correctly paired:

a. Incidence - number of cases in a population at a given time
False

b. Symptoms - features of an illness that the patient notices
True

c. Prevalence - number of new cases in a population over a given time
False

d. Morbidity - number of deaths in a population
False

e. Sensitivity of a screening test - number of patients with the disease who have a positive screening test
True

Question 4. The following are correctly paired:

a. Tiredness - clinical sign
False

b. Prognosis - how the patient's disease will behave
True

c. Tuberculosis - PAS stain
False

d. Biopsy - autopsy procedure
False

e. High blood pressure - clinical sign
True

estion 6. The following are correctly paired:

a. Hepatocytes - permanent cells
False

b. Cardiac muscle damage - regeneration
False

c. G0 phase - labile cells
False

d. Renal epithelial cells - stable cells
False

e. Hyperplasia - permanent cells
False

Question 7. The following statements are correct:

a. Bodybuilders can build up muscle indefinitely on a high-protein diet
False

b. Smokers' bronchial epithelium is usually atrophic
False

c. The lactating breast shows epithelial hyperplasia
True

d. Oestrogen-producing ovarian cancer can cause endometrial hyperplasia
True

e. The regenerative capacity of the liver is due to the fact that liver cells are labile
True

Question 8. The following statements are correct:

a. Atrophy involves necrosis of cells
False

b. Metaplasia inevitably leads to neoplasia
False

c. Growth factors may inhibit cell growth or division
True

d. The myocardium of a hypertensive patient contains more myocardial cells than is normal
False

e. The G1, S and G2 phases of the cell cycle together make up the interphase
True False

Question 9. The following statements are correct:

a. Caseous necrosis is characteristically caused by ischaemia
True

b. Carbon tetrachloride causes cell injury through free radicals
True

c. Disaggregation of polyribosomes is an ultrastructural feature of reversible cell injury
True

d. The brain is a common site for gangrenous necrosis
False

e. Autolysis is characterised by a vital reaction to dead cells
True

wasem · Credits: 8592 My Scrapbook

thnx

ria_siz18 · Credits: 585 My Scrapbook

Q1.false,false,true,true,false
Q2.true,true,false,false,false
Q3.true,true,true,true,true
Q4.true,false,true,false,true
Q6.false ,false,true,true,true(not so sure of this one)
Q8.false,true,true,true,true

wasem · Credits: 8592 My Scrapbook

Question 1. The following statements are correctly paired:

a. Idiopathic - cause unknown
True False

b. Pathogenesis - direct cause of disease
True False

c. Congenital - present at birth
True False

d. Prognosis - likely disease outcome
True False

e. Aetiology - mechanism of disease production
True False

a. Idiopathic - cause unknown (True)

Explanation: Idiopathic, essential and primary are all terms used to mean cause unknown.
b. Pathogenesis - direct cause of disease (False)
c. Congenital - present at birth (True)

Explanation: The term 'congenital' means that the pathological process has occurred during embryonic development. It is important to remember that the congenital disease/defect may not cause any problems until months or years after birth (e.g. various forms of congenital heart disease).
d. Prognosis - likely disease outcome (True)

Explanation: The prognosis of a disease is an estimate of its outcome.
e. Aetiology - mechanism of disease production (False)

wasem · Credits: 8592 My Scrapbook

Question 2. The following are examples of genetic diseases:

a. Haemophilia (factor VIII deficiency)
True False

b. Down's syndrome
True False

c. Colour blindness
True False

d. Munchausen's syndrome
True False

e. Pulmonary asbestosis
True False

a. Haemophilia (factor VIII deficiency) (True)

Explanation: Haemophilia is an inherited disorder of blood clotting. The genetic defect is linked to the X chromosome and is carried by females and mainly expressed in disease form in males. The gene defect causes a defect in factor VIII production and thus the clotting cascade is interrupted and patients suffer from a bleeding tendency.
b. Down's syndrome (True)

Explanation: Down's syndrome is the commonest chromosomal disorder and most affected children (95%) have trisomy 21 (i.e. an extra chromosome 21). Their total chromosome count is therefore 47. Two other common trisomies are trisomy 18 (Edward's syndrome) and trisomy 13 (Patau's syndrome).
c. Colour blindness (True)

Explanation: Colour blindness is another X-linked genetic disorder, manifesting in males.
d. Munchausen's syndrome (False)
e. Pulmonary asbestosis (False)

wasem · Credits: 8592 My Scrapbook

Question 3. The following are correctly paired:

a. Incidence - number of cases in a population at a given time
True False

b. Symptoms - features of an illness that the patient notices
True False

c. Prevalence - number of new cases in a population over a given time
True False

d. Morbidity - number of deaths in a population
True False

e. Sensitivity of a screening test - number of patients with the disease who have a positive screening test
True False

a. Incidence - number of cases in a population at a given time (False)
b. Symptoms - features of an illness that the patient notices (True)

Explanation: The terms 'symptoms' and 'signs' are often used interchangeably. Signs are the clinical manifestations of a disease which the clinician elicits.
c. Prevalence - number of new cases in a population over a given time (False)
d. Morbidity - number of deaths in a population (False)
e. Sensitivity of a screening test - number of patients with the disease who have a positive screening test (True)

Explanation: Screening for disease is an important concept, particularly in cancer prevention. Screening is the process whereby apparently healthy people are investigated in order to detect unrecognised disease. Although 'mass screening' does exist (e.g. all babies are screened for phenylketonuria at birth) most screening targets certain 'at risk' groups. The screening programmes for female breast and cervical cancer target subgroups of the population who are most at risk (i.e. females of certain age groups). Screening involves a cheap diagnostic test, such as a cervical smear or mammogram, which picks up those with early, treatable forms or precursors of the disease. The test must be sensitive enough to pick up all cases, but not oversensitive so that 'false-positive' results occur. In a perfect test, the sensitivity (true positives) and specificity (true negatives) will each be 100%.

wasem · Credits: 8592 My Scrapbook

Question 4. The following are correctly paired:

a. Tiredness - clinical sign
True False

b. Prognosis - how the patient's disease will behave
True False

c. Tuberculosis - PAS stain
True False

d. Biopsy - autopsy procedure
True False

e. High blood pressure - clinical sign
True False

a. Tiredness - clinical sign (False)
b. Prognosis - how the patient's disease will behave (True)

Explanation: Prognosis is the term used for predicting the outcome of a disease. By understanding the basic mechanisms and processes of disease, it is possible to inform patients about their likelihood of survival or their expected quality of life.
c. Tuberculosis - PAS stain (False)
d. Biopsy - autopsy procedure (False)
e. High blood pressure - clinical sign (True)

Explanation: High blood pressure (hypertension) is a clinical sign. Most patients will not know whether or not their blood pressure is normal unless it is measured. However, patients may have symptoms suggestive of high blood pressure such as headache.

wasem · Credits: 8592 My Scrapbook

Question 5. The following statements are correct:

a. The immunoperoxidase technique demonstrates cellular production of antigens in tissues
True False

b. Western blotting techniques are used to analyse DNA
True False

c. Squamous cell carcinoma may produce cytokeratin intermediate filaments
True False

d. Frozen sections are a rapid diagnostic technique which can be used intraoperatively
True False

e. In situ hybridisation techniques can be used to examine RNA in tissues
True False

a. The immunoperoxidase technique demonstrates cellular production of antigens in tissues (False)
b. Western blotting techniques are used to analyse DNA (False)
c. Squamous cell carcinoma may produce cytokeratin intermediate filaments (True)

Explanation: Many cancers produce excessive quantities of certain cell products, which can be identified using histochemical or immunohistochemical techniques. For example, a malignant melanoma, a tumour of the pigment-containing cells of the epidermis (melanocytes), may produce excessive melanin which can be seen in diagnostic sections using a special silver stain (Masson Fontana) or by immunostaining for S-100, a calcium-binding protein found in melanocytes. Similarly, squamous cancers produce cytokeratins ('keratins'). Cytokeratins are water-insoluble proteins found in most epithelial cells. These proteins are therefore good markers of epithelial differentiation in tumours.
d. Frozen sections are a rapid diagnostic technique which can be used intraoperatively (True)

Explanation: The rapid frozen section is used by surgeons who require urgent confirmation of a diagnosis during surgery. They may alter their surgical procedure on this basis (e.g. knowing whether a tumour is benign or malignant may drastically alter the type of operation performed). Surgeons also may ask the pathologists to perform frozen sections on tissue resection margins during cancer operations, to ensure complete removal.
e. In situ hybridisation techniques can be used to examine RNA in tissues (True)

Explanation: In situ hybridisation is a very useful technique which enables us to visualise specific DNA sequences or RNA molecules in tissue sections. It has been used to identify viral or bacterial RNA/DNA in tissue sections. Examples include the Epstein-Barr virus in malignant lymphoid tumours and human papilloma virus sequences in cervical cancer and pre-cancer. It has many applications.

wasem · Credits: 8592 My Scrapbook

Question 6. The following are correctly paired:

a. Hepatocytes - permanent cells
True False

b. Cardiac muscle damage - regeneration
True False

c. G0 phase - labile cells
True False

d. Renal epithelial cells - stable cells
True False

e. Hyperplasia - permanent cells
True False

a. Hepatocytes - permanent cells (False)
b. Cardiac muscle damage - regeneration (False)
c. G0 phase - labile cells (False)
d. Renal epithelial cells - stable cells (True)

Explanation: The renal tubular epithelial cells are good examples of stable cells. This is clinically important. Renal failure caused by tubular damage can resolve, as long as salt-water and acid-base balance can be maintained over this time to allow regeneration of tubular cells and normal renal function to be restored.
e. Hyperplasia - permanent cells (False)

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