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AIIMS
nov7 answers from dr bhatia(dbmci)
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11.19.07 (10 months ago)
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friends,
dr bhatia has posted the AIIMS
answres. well my remarks "ANSWERS PARHO AUR APNA PET PAKARH KE HASTE HASTE BEHOSH HO JAO". HERE IS A PERFECT EXAMPLE OF IRRESPONSIBILITY.
DR BHATIA JI, IT IS BETTER TO STAY QUIET AND LET OTHERS THINK THAT YOU ARE AN IDIOT.......THAN CONFIRMING YOUR IDIOCY BY OPENING YOUR MOUTH.
ENOUGH OF THIS....
HERE ARE THE QUESTION ANSWERS BY DR BHATIA(CRAP)
1. Violent inversion of the foot will lead to avulsion of tendon of the following muscle attached to the tuberosity of the
5th metatarsal:
A. Peroneus brevis
2. Uppermost structure seen at the hilum of the left lung is:
A. Pulmonary artery
3. Ulnar injury in the arm leads to all except:
D. Adduction of thumb
4. Left renal vein crosses the Aorta:
B. Anteriorly, below the superior mesenteric artery
5. Occlusion occurs at the 2nd part of Axillary artery, blood flow is maintained by anastomosis between:
C. Deep branch of the transverse cervical artery and Subscapular artery
6. In post-ductal coarctation of the aorta, blood flow to the lower limbs in maintained by increased blood flow through:
B. Intercostal and Superior epigastric
Ans: (B)
7. Seen in agenesis of corpus callosum is:
D. No neurological deficit
8. One of the following is the watershed area of the colon between the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries:
C. Splenic flexure
9. Gall bladder epithelium is:
D. Simple columnar with brush border
10. Which muscle is not punctured while doing a thoracic procedure in the mid-axillary line:
B. Transverses thoracis
11. Urothelium does not line:
A. Collecting ducts
12. According to Couinaud’s classification the 4th segment of the liver is:
B. Quadrate lobe
13. If the circumflex artery gives off the posterior interventricular artery, then the arterial supply is called:
B. Left dominance
15. Basement membrane consists of all except:
D. Rhodopsin
16. Perforators are not present at the:
D. Below the inguinal ligament
17. Tongue muscles develops from:
D. None of the above
18. A female come with complaints of chest pain. On examination she is found to have pericarditis with pericardial effusion.
The pain is mediated by:
C. Phrenic nerve
19. Meiosis I occurs at which of the following transformation:
B. Primary spermatocyte to secondary spermatocyte
20. The ureter develops from:
C. Mesonephric duct
21. In Hyaline cartilage, type of collagen present is:
B. Type 2
Physiology
22. Exercise causes:
C. Body temperature rise
23. Which of the following is correctly matched?
C. G cells- Gastrin
Ans: (C)
24. All of the following occur when the blood flow through to capillaries except
A. Increase in haemotocrit
25. When a person changes position from standing to lying down position, following occurs.
B. Venous return to heart rises immediately
26. HB estimation is not done by
D. Wintrobe method
27.Ureteric peristalsis is due to
B. Parasympathetic innervation
28. Fast axonal transport is by all except
C. Polymerisation and depolymerisation of cytoskeleton
29. Sertoli cells in the testis have receptors for
A. FSH
30. About myocardial oxygen demand, true is
C. Directly Proportional to ventricle systole duration
31. ‘C’ wave in JVP is due to:
B. Bulging of the tricuspid value into the right atrium
32. Maximum absorption of HCO3 occurs is:
A. PCT
33. Blood spills on the floor are cleaned by
A. Sodium hypochlorite
34. In the study of evolution we see that the protein sequence is different but the shape of protein is same, this is known
as
A. Convergent
35. True about Linkage Studies is
A. Characteristic DNA polymorphism in a family is associated with disorder
36. PCR uses
B. Mg 2+
37. Vitamin K is required for
A. Carboxylation
39. Enzyme Peroxidase is used for estimation of
A. Glucose
40. Used for the treatment of migraine, the triptans act through:
b. 5HT-1B
41. Therapeutic monitoring is done for all of the following except:
B. Metformin
42. All but one acts via GABAA except:
D. Promethazine
43. Regarding Phenytoin, false is:
B. At very low doses, zero order kinetics occurs
44. Most potent anti-emetic is:
B. Granisetron
45. All of the following are the side effects of Clomiphene citrate except:
A. Polycystic ovarian disease
46. Uterine relaxant with least side effects
B. Nifedipine
47.Drug causing hyperglycemia
A. Corticosteroids
48.Hypercalcemia is caused by all except:
A. Phenytoin
49. About Furesemide, true is
C. Used in pulmonary oedema
50. Bisphosphonates are not used in:
D. Vitamin D intoxication
51. Good Clinical Practices (GCPs) are not a part of:
A. Preclinical studies
52. Which of the following is not used as a sedative, but causes sedation as a side effect:
B. Antihistaminics,
53. Thiazide causes all except
B. Increased calcium excretion
54. All are true about Clofibrate Except:
D. More effective empty stomach
55. OC pills are contraindicated in patients receiving:
A. Rifampicin
56. A patient is posted for elective surgery. Which of the following drugs should be stopped on the day of surgery:
D. Metformin
57. Mechanism of action of Nitric oxide is,
B. Increase cGMP
58. All of the following utilize NO except
D. Minoxidil
59. True about protease inhibitors are all except:
D. Saquinavir causes maximum induction of CYP3A4
60. True about Benzodiazepines as compared to other hypnotics
C. Overdose is better tolerated compared to other hypnotics
61.When stem cell transforms to form other tissues, the process is called as:
C. Transdifferentiation
62. FNAC needle gauge size is:
B. 22 – 26
63. Senile cardiac amyloidosis is due to defect in:
B. Transthyretin
64. Cryoprecipitate contains all of the following except:
B. Factor IX
65. In mitral valve prolapse, the histological finding is:
C. Myxomatous degeneration of the valve
67. Micronodular cirrhosis is seen in all except:
A. Postnecrotic cirrhosis
68. Shock lung is characterized histologically by:
A. Diffuse alveolar oedema
69. Shock lung is characterized histologically by:
A. Diffuse alveolar oedema
70. Councilman bodies are seen in:
C. Acute viral hepatitis
71. Caspases are involved in:
A. Apoptosis
72. Feature of Irreversible cell injury is:
A. Amorphous deposits in the mitochondria
73. In reye syndrome all are seen except
A. Perinuclear staining
74. In Lysosomal Storage Disorders, true is:
A. The lysosomes are deficient in the hydrolytic enzyme
75. The agent used for fixation of Pap smear is:
A. Ethyl alcohol
76. A patient presents with hyperparathyroidism. He has a family history of his siblings having pituitary involvement,
thyroid nodules, pancreatic involvement, parathyroid hyperplasia and cutaneous angiofibromas. Most likely diagnosis:
A. MEN 1
77. A 7 year old child presents with non-blanching rash over the extensor aspect of arm with swelling over knee. Urine
analysis shows proteinurea + and hematuria. +++. On kidney biopsy which finding will be most commonly seen:
C. Deposition of IgA
78. Primitive streak initiation and maintenance is due to:
C. Nodal gene
79. Most common site of spinal tumour
B. Extra medullary extradural
80. In collapsing glomerulopathy, the following is seen:
D. Tuft necrosis
81. Acridine orange is used as a stain for:
A. DNA and RNA
82. PAS does not stain:
D. Lipids
83. Not used to stain fats:
B. Congo red
84. Most common brain tumor in NF1
A. Optic glioma
85. Telefono is
C. Beating on ears
86. In tandem [bleep], number fired is
B. 2
87. In a case due to asphyxia last to be opened during dissections
A. Neck
88. About Informed consent, false is:-
B. All information about expected complications should be told
89. All of the following include grievous injuries, except:
D. Abrasion of the face
90. Vitreous humor is sent in
D. Fluoride
91. HACEK group includes all except:
A. Hemophilus influnzae
92. A male patient with symptoms of urethritis. Examination reveals only pus cells but no organisms. Lesions are caused
mostly by:
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
93. Lancefield grouping of streptococci is done by using:
C. Group C carbohydrate antigen
94. The medium used for Vibrio cholerae is:
B. TCBS medium
95. Regarding respiratory viruses all are true except:
B. Mumps causes septic meningitis in adults
96. In active chronic hepatitis B, all are seen except:
B. IgM anti-HbcAg
97. True about Corynebacterium diphtheria is: A/E
D. Toxigenicity is mediated by chromosomal change.
[snip]. Prions consist of:
D. Only proteins
99. Corneal endothelium ion exchange pump are inhibited by:
B. Anaerobic glycolysis activation
100. Dangerous area of eye is:
C. Ciliary body
101. Transparency of the cornea is maintained by all except:
B. Wide separated collagen bands
102. After laparoscopic appendicectomy, a female patient slipped and hurt her nose on the bed.
She developed swelling of the nose, injury to anterior nasal bone and had mild difficulty in breathing. What would you do
next?
C. Surgical drainage
103. A patient presents with Carcinoma of the larynx involving the left false cords, left arytenoids and the left
aryepiglottic
folds with bilateral mobile true cords. Treatment of choice is:
A. Vertical hemilaryngectomy
104. A child presents with ear infection with foul smelling discharge. On further exploration a small perforation is found in
the pars flacida of the tympanic membrane. Most appropriate next step in the management would be:
D. Tympano-mastoid exploration
105. In emergency tracheostomy the following structures are damaged except:
B. Inferior thyroid artery
106. Which of the following is a good source of omega 3 PUFA :
D. Fish oil
107. Regarding flourosis all are true except:
A. Flourosis is the most common cause of dental caries in children
108. SAFE strategy is recommended for:
A. Trachoma
109. Not a measure of central tendency:
C. Variable
110. Which of the following person is present in a sub centre:
A. Multipurpose worker
111. True about dietary allowance are all except:
A. Adequate intake
112. Scrub typhus is transmitted by:
B. Trombiculid mite
113. Kala-azar, vector is:
C. Sand fly
114. Not included in the National Immunisation Programme is:
B. Hepatitis B
115. Comparison of the value obtained and a predetermined objective is done by:
A. Evaluation
116. Maternal Mortality Rate is calculated by:
B. Maternal deaths/1000 live births
117. In HIV window period indicates:
B. Time period between infection and detection of antibodies against HIV
118. In an epidemic the first case of come to the notice of the investigator is:
A. Index case
119. Epidemic Dropsy is due to:
B. Sanguinarine
120. Which of the following will cause an increase in the prevalence of the disease:
C. Longer duration of the disease
121. Regarding National Polio Surveillance all are true except:
D. Acute Flaccid Paralysis(AFP) Surveillance is not done in children < 5years of age
122. True about polioviruses is:
C. Man is the only known reservoir of infection
123. Positive Schick’s test indicates that the person is:
C. Susceptible to diphtheria
124. A 18 month old child come to you with history of immunization taken only for a single dose of OPV and DPT. What will you
give now?
B. Give BCG, Measles, and second doses of OPV and DPT
125. Active method to detect undiagnosed cases in apparently healthy persons is:
A. Screening
126. Primary Health Care is:
A. Health for all
127. Under the National Programme for control of blindness who is supposed to conduct the vision screening of school
students?
A. School teachers
128. Which vaccine should not be given to a child suffering from convulsions?
C. DPT
130. Pulmonary hypertension is caused by all except
A. Hyperventilation
131. Metabolic alkalosis is seen in:
A. Mineralocorticoid excess
132. Thrombo prophylaxis are all except
D. AT3
133. Which of the following is not included in intensive management of diabetes mellitus:
B. Postural hypotension due to autonomic neuropathy
134. VHL syndrome includes all except:
A. Endolymphatic sac tumours
135. Not a feature of DKA is:
B. Bradycardia
136. In osteomalacia, all are true except:
B. Increased serum calcium
137. Fractional excretion of Na++ < 1% is seen in:
A. Pre-renal azotemia
138. Clinical features of Cushing disease include all except
B. Episodic hypertension
139. Hypertension with hypokalemia is seen in all except
B. End stage renal disease
140. Not seen in SIADH is:
C. Volume depletion
141. A 40-year-old man, smoker, complains of epigastric pain since an hour. On electrocardiogaraphic examination he is found
to have ST elevations suggesting an inferior wall infarction. Next step in the management would be:
A. Aspirin
142. Pancytopenia with cellular bone marrow is seen in all except:
D. Congenital Dyserythropoetic Anaemia
143. ECG was shown. 70 year old man with no prefious significant medical history presenting with sudden onset yncope. Most
likely diagnosis is:
C. Complete heart block
144. True about Ogilives syndrome are all except:
A. It is caused by mechanical obstruction of the colon
145. Most common site of subependymal giant cell astrocytomas is:
A. Foramen of Monro
146. A 30 year old male patient presents with a peptic ulcer in the posterior duodenum with a bleeding vessel at the base.
The bleeding is not controlled endoscopically. On examination his heart rate is 100/min, BP is 110/76 mm of Hg and Hb is 10
gm/dl after transfusion. Next step in his management will be:
D. Partial gastrectomy involving the bleeding ulcer
147. For a lower end esophagus adenocarcinoma, a trans-hiatal oesophagostomy is planned. The approach would be in the
following order:
A. Abdomen and Neck
148. In a survey, mamy children are examined and were found to have urogenital abnormalities. The ones having urothelial
cancers are most likely to be associated with which anomaly:
B. Bladder extrophy
149. A 23 year old male who is otherwise normal complains of mild pain in his right iliac fossa in a waveform pattern which
increases during the night and he becomes exhausted and is admitted in the hospital. On examination there is mild hematuria.
Urine examination reveals plenty of RBCs, 50WBCs/hpf. Urine pH is 5.5. Most likely diagnosis is:
C. Ureteral calculus
150. Inflammation of a retrocaecal appendix will produce pain when there is which of the following movements at the hip:
B. Extension
152. After fracture of the penis (injury to the tunica albuginea) with intact Buck’s fascia, there occurs hematoma:
D. Shaft of the penis only
153. Shoulder pain post laparoscopy is due to:
B. CO2
154.A 18 year old male presents with pectus excavatum. He denies history of any dyspnoea or chest pain. On examination there
is mild pectus excavatum and intermittent wheezing on exertion. Surgery in this patient is indicated if he has:
B. Limiation of maximum inspiration during exercise
155 Goniometry is measurement of
A. urethrovesical angle
156. 18 year old girl presents with amenorrhoea, milk discharge, weight loss. Diagnosis is
A. Pitutary Cancer
157. Increase in maternal ser AFP is seen in
D. Renal agenesis
158. Diagnosis of asherman syndrome is done by all except
A. Endometrial culture
160. Following is associated with max risk of invasive cervical cancer
C. High grade squmous intraepithelial lesion(HGSIL)
161. Internal podalic version for transverse lie complication is
A. Uterine rupture
162. In which of the following heart diseases is maternal mortality during pregnancy is found to be the highest?
B. Eisenmenger’s complex
163. All are essential components of TOF except:
A. Valvular pulmonic stenosis
164. Most common type of seizures in neonates are:
C. Subtle
165. In Down’s syndrome, false is:
A. Increased PAPP-A
166. A newborn female child, weight 3.5kg, delivered by uncomplicated delivery, developed respiratory distress immediately
after birth. On chest x-ray ground glass appearance was seen. Baby put on mechanical ventilation and was give surfactant but
condition of baby deteriorates and increasing hypoxemia was present. A full term female sibling died within a week with the
same complaints. ECHO is normal. Usual cultures are negative. Your diagnosis is:
C. Neonatal pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
167. A 12 year old girl presents with acute rheumatic carditis with mitral insufficiency. She is likely to have:
D. Decreased functional residual capacity
168. A 71/2 year old child presents with non productive cough, mild stridor since 6 months. On oral antibiotics, patient is
improving but suddenly develops wheezing, productive cough, mild fever. X-ray shows hyperlucency and PFT shows obstructive
curve. Most probable diagnosis is:
B. Bronchiolitis obliterans
169. A 2 year old female child developed fever, cough and respiratory distress. On chest x-ray consolidation is seen in
right lower lobe. She improved with antibiotics but on follow up at 8 weeks was again found to have increasing consolidation
in right lower lobe and fever. Your next investigation would be:
A. Bronchoscopy
170. A child presents with history of respitory infections. His sweat chlorides levels are 36 and 41mEq/L on two different
occasions. Which other test would you do to exclude the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis:
B. Nasal electrode potential difference
171. A term infant has not passed meconium for 48 hours. He presents with distension of abdomen and emesis since one day.
Next most appropriate investigation would be:
B. Manometry
172. A child presents with ear infection with foul smelling discharge. On further exploration a small perforation is found in
the pars flaccida of the tympanic membrane. Most appropriate next step in the management would be:
D. Tympano-mastoid exploration
173. Learning does not include:
B. Catharsis
174. Regarding type A personality, false is:
D. Mood fluctuations
175. All are characteristics of schizophrenia except:
C. Long stretches of mood changes
176. Altered perception of real objects is:
A. Illusion
177. Psychodynamic theory of mental illness is based on:
A. Unconscious conflict
178. About Vitligo not true is
D. Leucotrychia is a good prognosis
179. A child presents with non blanching rash over the extensor aspect of arm with swelling over knee urine analysis show
proteinurea 1 + and rbc 3+ on kidney biopsy which finding will be seen
C. Depositions of Ig A
181. Marker for langerhan’s cell histiocytosis
A. CD-1a
182. A male pt with urethral discharge on microscopy – only pus cells, no organism, leukocyte esterase (+) ve No- Glucose,
noprotein in urine. 50 wbc/ HPF is seen. what is the likely diagnosis?
A. Chalamydia trachomatis
182. Scarring alopecia – caused by A/E
D. Alopecia areata
183. Typhoid present with hair fall diagnosis
A. Telogen effucium
184. A child presented with respiratory distress.was broght to emergency with bag and mask ventilation. Now intubated. Chest
x ray shows right sided deviation of mediastinum with scaphoid abdomen. His Pulse Impulse has shifted to the right. What is
the next step?
D. Tube thoracostomy
185. All are true about Thiopentone Except:
C. Agent of choice in shock
186. All regarding Mivacurium are true except
D. Hypertension
187. ‘Egg-on-side’ appearance on X-ray chest is seen in:
B. Uncorrected TGA
188. In patient with high clinical suspicion of pulmonary thromboembolism, best investigation would be?
B. CT angiography
189. A newborn baby not passed meconium for 48 hours since birth, presents with vomiting and distension of abdomen. The most
appropriate investigation for evaluation would be?
A. Barium enema study
190. Extensive involvement of deep white matter with bilateral hyperdense thalami on non-contrast CT scan of the brain is
virtually diagnostic of:
B. Krabbe’s disease.
191. Floating ‘Water- Lily’ sign is seen in:
A. Hydatid cyst
192.Hampton’s hump is seen in:
A. Pulmonary embolism
193. A 30 year old man presents with 6 month history of nasal discharge, facial pain and fever. On antibiotic therapy, fever
subsided. After 1 month again had symptoms of mucopurulent discharge from the middle meatus and the mucosa of the meatus
appeared congested and oedematous. Next best investigation would be:
B). NCCT of the nose and para-nasal sinuses
194
. Staging of bone tumours is done by:
A. Enneking
195. Kanavel’s sign is seen in:
A. Tenosynovitis
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