1. Which nerve is affected in L4L5 lateral disc prolapse?
a. L3
b. L4
c. L5
d. S1
2. Blood brain barrier is formed by
a. Endothelium
b. Astrocytes
c. Oligodendrocytes
d. Microglia
3. Which of the following is not ectodermal in origin
a. Astrocytes
b. Melanocytes
c. Microglia
d. Oligodendrocytes
4. Blood brain barrier is not present at
a. Area postrema
b. Pineal body
c. Mamillary body
5. What percentage of cardiac output goes to the brain
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
6. What is the volume of CSF produced everyday
a. 100 ml
b. 200 ml
c. 550 ml
d. 1000 ml
7. At what viral load of HIV is HAART started (in copies/ml)
a. 5,000
b. 10,000
c. 20,000
d. 50,000
8. PML is caused due to
a. CMV
b. HIV
c. JC virus
d. H.Influenza B
9. where is cervicodorsal sympathectomy most indicated
a. Hydradenitis Suppurativa
b. Primary Hyperhidrosis
c. Raynaud’s phenomena
d. Causalgia
10. Where is interferon used
a. HIV
b. HCV
c. CMV
d. JC Virus
11. Where do you find erythema migrans
a. PTB
b. Leprosy
c. Rhematic fever
d. Lyme’s disease
12. Acanthosis Nigricans is seen in
a. DM
b. HIV
c. PTB
d. HTN
13. Pyoderma gangrenosum is typically seen in
a. Pseudomonas aerogenosa
b. Ulcerative colitis
c. Crohn’s disease
d. IBS
14. A patient in the ICU was treated with ampicillin. Soon after which he developed diarrhea and on colonoscopy yellowish patches were seen. What is the next line of management?
a. Vancomycin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Ticarcillin
d. 5 ASA
15. A middle aged woman presents with pain in RIF and deep dyspareunia with fever and vomiting. She is suffering from
a. Appendicitis
b. Diverticulitis
c. Ovarian torsion
d. PID
16. A female patient presented proximal muscle weakness with bluish purple discolorations over her eyelids with oedema is probably suffering from
a. Polymyositis
b. Dermatomyositis
c. Inclusion body myositis
d. DMD
17. a young man come to the emergency room with an history of assault over his forehead around 15 minutes back and complains of total blindness in his left eye. O/E bilateral papillary reflexes, direct and consensual are intact. Where is the site of lesion
a. optic nerve
b. left optic tract
c. right occipital lobe
d. functional
18. what is not seen in Colles’s fracture
a. Sudek’s osteodystrophy
b. shoulder hand syndrome
c. non-union
d. dinner fork deformity
19. A patient present to you with fracture shaft of humerus. How do you confirm that his radial nerve is severed
a. paralysis of wrist flexion
b. weakness of finger flexors
c. weakness of wrist extension with Anaesthesia
over anatomical stuff box
d. atrophy of hypothenar muscles
20. A patient present to you with ataxia and hemiparesis. Where is the site of lesion
a. cerebellum
b. midbrain
c. pons
d. medulla
21. what is the treatment for causalgia
a. alpha blockers
b. beta blockers
c. NSAIDS
d. Opioids
22. Astasia abasia is seen in
a. Parkinsonism
b. Wilson’s disease
c. Hysteria
d. Alzheimer’s disease
23. Lhermitte’s sign is seen in
a. AD
b. DMD
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. AML
24. Herpes lesions of 7th nerve is called
a. GBS
b. Heerfordt syndrome
c. Melkerson Rosenthal syndrome
d. Ramsay Hunt syndrome
25. Where is Ach is principally involved
a. Locus ceruleus
b. Substantia nigra
c. Raphe nucleus
d. Nucleus of Meyenert
26. Weight gain is not a side effect of
a. Topiramate
b. Valproate
c. Phenytoin
d. Clobazam
27. Seizures occurring during every menstrual cycle is called
a. Petit mal
b. Grand mal
c. Catamenial epilepsy
d. Kindling
28. Which is the most common hallucination in schizophrenia
a. Auditory
b. Visual
c. Olfactory
d. Gustatory
29. ECT is most useful in
a. P.schizophrenia
b. hebephrenic schizophrenia
c. catatonic schizophrenia
d. simple schizophrenia
30. A female presents with bilateral breast tenderness during every menstrual cycle. She is suffering from
a. fibro adenoma
b. duct cell papilloma
c. fibrocystic disease
d. conversion disorder
31. where is unilateral tremours not seen
a. intentional
b. resting
c. essential
d. Parkinson’s
32. Diaphysis is involved in
a. giant cell tumour
b. osteosarcoma
c. Ewing’s sarcoma
d. osteoma
33. metaphyseal tumours are
a. giant cell tumour
b. osteosarcoma
c. Ewing’s sarcoma
d. osteoma
34. A 21 year old male presents with a benign bone tumour. Tumour is
a. giant cell tumour
b. osteosarcoma
c. osteochondroma
d. multiple myeloma
35. the most common bladder carcinoma
a. SCC
b. Adeno Ca
c. TCC
d. Leiomyoma
36. RBC casts are a feature of
a. Glomerular nephritis
b. Tubular disease
c. Interstitial nephritis
d. Collecting duct necrosis
37. Which drug causes granulomatous lesion
a. CPZ
b. Clozpine
c. Olanzapine
d. Risperidone
38. What is specific for DLE
a. Anti smith
b. Anti DNA
c. Anti Rho
d. Anti-histone
39. Side effect of hydralazine are a/e
a. Headache
b. Bradycardia
c. Angina pectoris
d. DLE
40. When do you suspect breast Ca o/e
a. Skin oedema with dimpling
b. Serous discharge per nipple
c. Mouse in the breast
d. Nipple retraction
41. Mammography is most useful in
a. Differentiation in benign and malignant tumours
b. Screening of breast Ca
c. Prognosis of breast Ca
d. Confirmatory test for Ca
42. A patient has the following test reports
HIV Elisa – negative
Western Blot-positive
How will you confirm that he has got HIV infection?
a. Northern blot
b. Southern blot
c. PCR
d. Eastern blot
43. Carnitine is involved in
a. Beta oxidation of FA
b. Synthesis of FA
c. Protein metabolism
d. Carbohydrate metabolism
44. Earliest manifestation of tuberous sclerosis in a 2 year old child
a. Adenoma sebaceum
b. Ash leaf spots
c. Shagreen patches
d. Heliotrope rash
45. M/c childhood tumour
a. brain tumours
b. ALL
c. Wilm’s tumour
d. Neuroblastoma
46. Which enzyme is involved in Tay-Sach’s disease
a. Sphingomyelinase
b. Hexosaminidase
c. Glucosidase
d. Galactocerebrosidase
47. 2 year old child presents with hepato-splenomegaly, mental retardation, seizures and foam cells in bone marrow, diagnosis is lysosomal storage disorder and the enzyme involved is
a. Glycosyl cerebrosidase
b. Ceremidase
c. Beta-galactosidase
d. Sphingomyelinase
48. A patient presents with severe headache, vomiting, sudden blindness and o/e her right eye is reddish and your next line of management is
a. CT scan
b. MRI
c. x-ray skull
d. tonometry
49. which is the investigation of choice in SAH
a. CT scan
b. MRI
c. x-ray skull
d. radio nucleotide scan
50. 2 villages A and B is reported to have cholera epidemic. You are posted as a epidemiologist to study about it. You are supposed to pick people at random from both the villages and study. This type of study is called
a. Case history
b. Cohort study
c. Cross sectional study
d. Case control study
51. Increased perinatal morbidity is due to
a. Birth trauma
b. Congenital birth defects
c. Infections
d. HIV
52. DNA double during which stage of cell cycle.
a. G1
b. G2
c. M
d. S
53. Which is the antagonist for diazepam
a. Flumazenil
b. Flupenthixol
c. Fluperazine
d. Fluoxetine
54. A female housewife washes her hands ritualistically five times so that she wont be infected by HIV before every meal. She has
a. OCD
b. p. schizophrenia
c. lack of knowledge of transmission of HIV
d. histrionic personality disorder
55. which cell identifies self from non-self antigens
a. t-cell
b. b-cell
c. macrophage
d. eosinophils
56. what is not a feature in Brown sequard syndrome
a. contra lateral pain and temperature loss below the lesion
b. ipsilateral pain and temperature loss below the lesion
c. anesthesia in the dermatome at the site of the lesion
d. ipsilateral joint and vibration sensory loss below the lesion
57. m/c association with Arnold Chiari malformation
a. cauda equina syndrome
b. Brown Sequard syndrome
c. AMLS
d. Syringomyelia
58. Proptosis is seen in
a. Down’s syndrome
b. Turner’s syndrome
c. Crouzon syndrome
d. Kline Levine syndrome
59. m/c vertebra involved in rheumatoid arthritis
a. sacral
b. lumbar
c. thoracic
d. cervical
60. m/c site for cerebral embolism from atherosclerosis
a. ECA
b. At the origin of ICA from common carotid artery
c. Subclavian artery
d. Inomminate artery
61. A patient after a motorcycle accident is breathless with pulse rate 120/min, muffled heart sounds and feeble pulse. The diagnosis is
a. Cardiac tamponade
b. Pulmonary embolism
c. Tension pnumothorax
d. Pericarditis
62. Water bottle heart is seen in x-ray of
a. Truncus arteriosus
b. TOF
c. TGA
d. Pericardial effusion
63. Firm warty vegetations along the lines of closure of valves is characteristic in
a. Infective endocarditis
b. Libman sachs endocarditis
c. Fungal endocarditis
d. SABE
64. m/c pancreatic Ca is
a. VIPoma
b. Glucogonoma
c. Metastasis
d. Ductal adenocarcinoma
65. Acute pancreatitis is caused by
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Hyperparathyroidism
d. Hypoparathyroidism
66. Which structure is not cut in grid iron incision
a. Skin
b. External oblique muscle
c. Transversalis fascia
d. Rectus abdominis
67. Laparoscopy is absolutely contraindicated in
a. Mild to moderate dyspnoea
b. Pregnancy
c. Appendicitis
d. Infected gall bladder
68. Bacteremia is seen in infection of
a. E coli
b. Shigella
c. Klebsiella
d. Salmonella
69. Large anion gap is not seen in
a. Lactic acidosis
b. Diabetic ketoacidosis
c. Distal RTA
d. Ethanol poisoning
70. Which nerve is a direct branch of roots forming the brachial plexus
a. Nerve to rhomboideus
b. Long thoracic nerve
c. Subscapular nerve
d. Radial nerve
71. Late manifestation of congenital toxoplasmosis are a/e
a. Choreoretinitis
b. Mental retardation
c. Hydrocephalus
d. Hepato spleno megaly
72. Consecutive optic atrophy occurs in
a. Optic neuritis
b. Methanol poisoning
c. Retinitis pigmentosa
d. Leber’s optic neuritis
73. 5HT3 agonist is
a. Ondansetron
b. Cisapride
c. Metoclopramide
d. Clozapine
74. Which is the most common complication seen in patients with bladder catheterization during the second week
a. Infection
b. Stone formation
c. Rupture of urethra
d. Hematuria
75. Casal’s necklace is characteristic in
a. Vit D
b. Vit A
c. Vit B6
d. Pellagra
76. DM
is aggravated due to
a. Niacin
b. Thiamine
c. Riboflavine
d. Biotin
77. HMG Co-A reductase inhibitor is given in
a. Type II DM
at 60 years
b. Hypertension
c. Pancreatitis
d. Insulinoma
78. Which is the agent used for prevention of ischaemic stroke
a. Aspirin alone
b. Ticlopidine
c. Clopidogrel
d. Aspirin and clopidogrel
79. A patient presents with dilated tortuous veins of the lower limb and on venous Doppler there is back flow of blood. All are advised expect
a. Glove stocking
b. Aspirin
c. Mesh in IVC
d. Surgical intervention
80. all are used as criteria to determine in brain dead individual except
a. corneal reflex
b. light reflex
c. cessation of breathing
d. deep tendon reflex
81. which enzyme is diagnostic of alcoholic liver disease
a. ALP
b. GGT
c. LDH
d. SGOT
82. Which is the gold standard for diagnosis of GERD
a. Barium swallow
b. Oesophagoscopy
c. 24 hr pH monitoring
d. CT abdomen
83. All are precancerous conditions except
a. Villous adenoma
b. Tubular adenoma
c. Familial polyposis
d. Ulcerative colitis
84. Which enzyme is increased in lead poisoning?
a. Delta ALA
b. Coproporphyrinogen 3
c. Heme
d. Protoporphyrin
85. Which is a atypical antipsychotic
a. Loxapine
b. CPZ
c. Zuclopenthixol
d. Risperidone
86. Pramipexole is
a. D2 agonist
b. D2 antagonist
c. Ach agoist
d. Anti choline esterase
87. Which is the definitive host for tinea solium
a. Dog
b. Sheep
c. Pig
d. Man
88. AFP levels increased upto 500 iu/ml in
a. Hepatocellular carcinoma
b. Testicular cancer
c. Cholangio carcinoma
d. Pancreatic cancer
89. Which is not a protein peptide or a.a
a. Substance p
b. Endorphins
c. Dynorphins
d. Serotonin
90. Unconjugated bilirubinimea is seen in a/e
a. Criggler najjar syndrome
b. Gilberts syndrome
c. Dubin johnson’s syndrome
d. Budd chiari syndrome
91. 0.45% NaCl is used in
a. Cerebral salt wasting
b. Hyperkelemia
c. Hyponatremnia
d. Adipsic hypernatremia
92. Impaired naming, intact comprehension and repetition is seen in
a. Wernicke’s aphasia
b. Transcortical sensory aphasia
c. Transcortical motor aphasia
d. Broca’s aphasia
93. Site of action of loop diuretics
a. PCT
b. DCT
c. Ascending Loop of Henle
d. Loop of Henle
94. Not a NRTI
a. Zidovudine
b. Nevirapine
c. Stauvidine
d. Lamivudine
95. m/c fungal infection is seen in aids
a. candida
b. blastomycosis
c. Cryptococcus
d. Mucormycosis
96. Delta waves in ECG is seen in
a. Hypothermia
b. Wpw syndrome
c. Hypokelemia
d. Dysarrhythmia
97. Acute changes in ECG in hyperkelemia
a. U waves
b. Prolongation of QT interval
c. QRS widening
d. ST segment elevation
[snip]. Which of the following is a exotoxin
a. E coli toxin
b. Proteus
c. Pseudomonas
d. Tetanus toxin
99. Which is the m/c cause of stroke
a. DM
b. Myocardial infarction
c. Rhd
d. Non rheumatic atrial fibrillation
100. Urinary stones which are hexagonal in shape
a. Cysteine
b. Urate
c. Calcium oxalate
d. Triple phosphate
101. Which ca doesn’t spread by lymphatic route predominantly
a. Breast ca
b. Medullary ca of thyroid
c. Papillary ca of thyroid
d. Follicular ca of thyroid
102. Thyrotoxicosis causes
a. Hyperkelemic periodic paralysis
b. Hypokelimic periodic paralysis
c. Normokelemic periodic paralysis
d. Myotonia
103. Atonic colon is due to
a. Bisacodyl
b. Lactulose
c. Cellulose
104. Fear of open spaces is
a. Agoraphobia
b. Acrophobia
c. Cynophobia
d. Generalized anxiety disorder
105. Csf findings of a person is as follows
Neutrophils=500/ml
Decreased glucose
Increased proteins
This is characteristic of
a. Viral meningitis
b. Bacterial
c. Tb
d. Malignancy
106. Which is essential in DM
a. Zinc
b. Copper
c. Iron
d. Chromium
107. Which is the centre regulating circadian rhythm
a. Preoptic nucleus
b. Tegmentum
c. Basal ganglia
d. Supra chiasmatic nucleus
108. Lathyrism is due to
a. Aflatoxin
b. BOAA
c. Sanguinarine
d. Mercury
109. LE cells are
a. Eosinophils
b. Macrophages
c. Neutrophils
d. Basophils
110. Cherry red spot is seen in
a. CRVO
b. CRAO
c. Retinitis Pigmentosa
d. Vitreous hemorrhage
111. Which of the following has got very high glucocorticoid potency
a. Cortisol
b. Dexamethasone
c. Betamethasone
d. Prednisolone
112. Which is not a human Prion Disease?
a. CJD
b. Kuru
c. Fatal familial insomnia
d. Scrapie
113. What is not seen in Reye’s syndrome?
a. Vomiting
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Cerebral edema
d. Fatty changes in renal tubular cells
114. Which of the following is an example for secondary prevention?
a. Cholesterol control in IHD
b. Rehabilitation of residual polio
c. Health education
d. Iron prophylaxis in anemia
115. Pure red aplasia is
a. Heerfordt syndrome
b. Kline Levine syndrome
c. Diamond blackfan syndrome
d. Von villebrandt syndrome
116. Early manifestation of vitamin A deficiency
a. Corneal scarring
b. Bitot’s spots
c. Xerophthalimia
d. Decreased dark adaptation
117. Which vaccine is contra indicated in pregnancy
a. Measles
b. Tetanus
c. Rubella
d. Hib
118. Which of the following is used for staging secondary sexual characteristics?
a. Tanner staging
b. Tnm staging
c. Ann arbor staging
119. Nissl’s granules are found in
a. Dendrites
b. Axons
c. Schwann cells
d. Cell body
120. Inulin is used for estimation of
a. Renal plasma flow
b. Gfr
c. Total body water
d. Ecf
121. Which is the drug of choice in refractory SIADH
a. Demeclocycline
b. Lithium
c. Desmopressin
d. Rennin
122. Lewi bodies are seen in
a. Alzheimer’s
b. Huntington’s
c. Tourette’s
d. Parkinson’s
123. Which of the following feature is not seen in neonatal meningitis
a. Vomiting
b. Hypothermia
c. Nuchal rigidity
124. Which is not the treatment for lumbar puncture headache?
a. Caffeine
b. Blood patch
c. Bed rest
d. Mannitol
125. A pt has visual hallucinations, parkinsonism n altered sensorium diagnosis is:
a. Corticobasal Dementia
b. Dementia with Lewy Bodies
c. Alzhiemers
d. Fronto temporal Dementia
126. Mainly responsible 4 horizontal conjugate gaze:
a. Sup. Colliculi
b. Lateral Geniculate Body
c. Median longitudinal Fasciculus
d. Cerebellum
127. Tri nucleotide repeats occcur in all except:
a. Alzheimers
b. Fragile X Syndrome
c. Huntintons Chorea
d. Fredrich's Ataxia
128. Which of the following tests 4 the parasympathetic response:
a. Tilt table test
b. Response to Phenyl ephrine
c. Heart rate response to deep breathing
129. MC Site 4 aneurysm:
a. Vertebral a.
b. Post. Cerebral a.
c. Mid. Cerebral a.
d. Ant. communicating a.
130. Which happens in Medial medullary syndrome
a. I/L Horners syndrome
b. I/L Hypoglossal Palsy
c. C/L Horners syndrome
d. C/L Hypoglossal palsy
131. Receptor 4 Vibration:
a. Pacinian corpuscles
b. Raffini endings
c. Meissners Corpuscles
d. Free nerve endings
132. Hepato duodenal ligament doesnt contain:
a. Portal vein
b. Bile Duct
c. Hepatic vein
d. Cystic Duct
133. Meralgia Paresthetica is due to invlovement of:
a. Medial cutaneous n. of thigh
b. Ilioinguinal n.
c. Lateral cutaneous n.of thigh
d. Femoral n.
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