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kan · Credits: 4066 My Scrapbook

hi guys.its now almost 2 weeks since the exam but unfortunately we are not very sure about the ans of some questions. I am posting an ans key,i request all of you to calculate your score n post it here so that we can have at least some idea regarding others performance in the exam.pls post your scores here..
1. Tumor suppressor genes are all except RAS.
2. Folate transporter gene is on chromosome 21. Had to take the round about way to get the answer to this one. Folate-preventable neural tube defects are caused by the well-known trisomies and the only one mentioned among the options was 21 and so went for it and voila got it right. Later got the info on the net. Sometimes it helps to go the round about way to answer some questions like this.
3. TAR syndrome ( actually the phenotype of the child was described rather than mentioning the diagnosis directly in the question ). All are useful in the diagnostic work-up except Karyotyping. It is due to a yet unknown mutation ( it is supposedly due to a micro-deletion involving chromosome 1) and hence karyotyping which is useful in detecting chromosomal anomalies has no role in the diagnostic work-up.
4. Most common inherited tumor is Retinoblastoma.
5. Loss of heterozygosity is a feature of – don’t know the answer to this one but it seems like it is Retinoblastoma. Would appreciate some FEEDBACK in this respect.
6. GSD seen only in females .prhaps this ques was wrongly framed...
7. Adult cells don’t divide like fetal and embryonic cells because CDK inhibitors prevent the cell form progressing from Go to S phase.
8. Macrocephaly with Leukodystrophy is a feature of Canavan’s disease.
9. True about Androgen insensitivity syndrome is phenotype can be entirely female.
10. Primary amenorrhea with inadequate secondary sexual characters in a young female with normal height is indicative of Mixed gonadal dysgenesis though Turner’s is also a very much probable option.
11. Multiple congenital defects with anencephaly is a feature of Trisomy 13. Easy way to remember- Some defects with normal life span is Trisomy 21. Many defects but compatible with a short life span is Trisomy 18 and too many defects with neonatal or intrauterine death is Trisomy 13.
12. Equal and opposite innervation of extraocular muscles is according to Sherrington’s rule..
13. Well-circumscribed orbital cone mass in an adult male is a Cavernoma. They are the most common orbital cone mass in adults.
14. Iris-corneal endothelial syndrome is characterized by diffuse iris atrophy.
15. Left head-tilt, diplopia worse on left gaze and a right hypertropia are indicative of a right superior oblique muscle weakness. The steps mentioned in the test are those of Beilschowsky’s test specifically designed for detecting obliques’ and vertical recti palsy.
16. Choroidal neovascularisation is seen in all except hypermetropia.
17. All have been given importance in Vision 2020 except Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis.
18. Retinitis pigmentosa is a feature of all except Marfan syndrome.
19. Painful ophthalmoplegia without fever and with an enlarged cavernous sinus on MRI is diagnostic of Tolosa-Hunt syndrome.
20. Nerve most commonly involved in compression by a Posterior communicating artery aneurysm is Oculomotor nerve. So is the case even with an Anterior communicating artery aneurysm.
21. Telecanthus is wide intercanthal distance with normal interpupillary distance.
22. Pathogenesis of diabetic macular edema involves all except retinal pigment epithelium abn( three options that were causes were increased PKC and VEGFR expression and oxidative stress.)
23. Blue-White selection during Polymerase chain reaction is for detecting the succsful ligation.
24. True about Alpha fetoprotein is – has a half-life of 5-7 days.
25. A pH of 3.5 has the following effect on lysophospholipid in biological membranes – seems the answer is ‘ there is no effect’.

27. True about GPCRs is – alpha subunit is of two types inhibitory n stimulator.
28. Marker of bone resorbtion is all except Osteocalcin.
29. Amino acid infusions to critically ill patients help by decreasing protein breakdown. not very sure..
30. Causes of high anion gap metabolic acidosis are all except glue sniffing.
31. Glutathione is required for all except conversion of oxyhemoglobin to methemoglobin.
32. True about Vitamin d are all except – Williams’ syndrome is characterized by obesity, mental retardation and hypogonadism. Only mental retardation and dysmorphic facial features with cardiac anomalies are a feature of Williams’ syndrome. It is also characterized by precocious puberty and not hypogonadism.
33. Translation product of polyA tail of mRNA will yield polyLysine.
34. Steroid receptors are comprised of all except transcriptional repressors. Transcriptional repressors or activators are bound by SREBs and are not standard components of the steroid receptor complex. not very sure.
35. Prion proteins have an extended alpha-helical confirmation. The mutant protein accumulates an excess of beta-pleated confirmation making it resistant to proteolytic degradation. not very sure

36. Anti-oxidants in lens of the eye are all except vitamin A.
37. Thiamine supplementation to patients in intensive care units is because it is a co-factor for PDH and a-KGDH enzymes. It reduces intracellular acidosis by not allowing pyruvate to accumulate and it also decreases systemic metabolic acidosis by activating PDH which generates acetyl coA an inhibitor of lipolysis and hence prevents from ketoacidosis developing.
38. Biochemical mechanisms of insulin-induced lipogenesis are all except inhibition of PDH.
39. Diarrhea due to a villous adenoma is characterized by metabolic acidosis
40. Protein denaturation leads to all effects except retention of function.
41. Acid base abnormality in CHPS is hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis.
42. Keratin +ve epithelial mediastinal tumor with lymphocytic infiltration is probably a Thymoma. Carcinoid is difficult to rule out though.
43. Microcytosis (MCV 55fL) with moderate anemia (Hb 9g/dL) in a 23 yr old with no history of transfusions in the past is indicative of iron-deficiency anemia though Thalassemia minor is extremely difficult to rule out with the info given.
44. Gingival hyperplasia and other infiltrative features in an adult male with a hematologic malignancy is likely to be due to AML-M4.
45. Clue cells are seen in Bacterial vaginosis.
46. Call-Exner bodies are found in Granulosa cell tumor.
47. Histopathology of chalazion reveals non-specific chronic inflammation.lipogranuloma can also be the ans. not very sure.[/b]

48. Histological activity in Ulcerative colitis is characterized by cryptitis.
49. All are visualized by bronchoscopy except sub-carinal lymphnodes.
50. Hematoxylin bodies are found in SLE.
51. Histopathology of Goodpasture syndrome is characterized by all except a leukocytoclastic vasculitis.
52. Electron microscopy is diagnostic in Alport’s syndrome.
53. Pathology of ARDS involves diffuse alveolar damage.
54. Valve least affected in RHD is Pulmonic valve.
55. Steroid-resistant nephritic syndrome is caused by mutations in Podocin.
56. Osteopetrosis is characterized by all except delayed fracture healing.
57. Kassabach-Meritt syndrome is due to a giant hemangioma.
58. Worst variant of Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is collapsing variety.
59. Cystinosis is characterized by all except
don't know the ans
. The tubular dysfunction due to cysteine stones may lead to a Fanconi syndrome-like picture.
60. Pathology of Pterygium involves an area of collagen degeneration.
61. Pancytopenia (Hb 6g/dL, TLC 1200 cells/cu,mm and PLC 50,000 cells/cu.mm) with significant microcytosis (MCV 12fL) and teardrop cells – likely diagnosis is Aplastic anemia. but i think it may be a misprint also i.e.mcv 112 or 120 in place of 12.in that case the ans is def megaloblastic anemia
62. Most common type of primary splenic lymphoma is – probably small lymphocytic lymphoma. not very sure.[/b]
63. Most common type of testicular tumor in pre-adolescent males is – probably tertocarcinoma.
64. Marker for Granulocytic sarcoma (chloroma) is CD33. or cd117 not very sure.
65. Chemoresistant tumor is Alveolar soft part tumor. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is a very close contender.
66. CD99 +ve tumor is - ………………is Ewing’s tumor.
67. Occupational cancers are all except Breast cancer.
68. CSF findings in viral encephalitis ( actually the disease was described in detail with features of neuro-infection but without neck rigidity and hence the diagnosis) – Lymphocytic pleocytosis. Difficult to say as increased protein level was among the options but lymphocytic pleocytosis is seemingly a better answer.
69. Ultrastructural feature of paraganglioma is dense core neurosecretory granules.
70. Most common phenotype of post-transplant myeloproliferative disorder is B-cell.
71. Marker for Granulosa cell tumor is Inhibin.
72. Contents of deep perineal pouch are all except root of penis
73. Muscle spared in Median nerve injury at the carpal tunnel is Adductor pollicis.
74. Valves in the portal vein are located – nowhere in the entire system
75. Abbe-Eastlander flap is based on labial artery.
76. Normal arm abduction involves all movements except medial rotation of scapula.
77. Branches of the cavernous segment of Internal carotid artery are all except Ophthalmic artery.
78. Rasmussen aneurysm involves Pulmonary artery.
79. Tributaries of thoracic duct are all except Right lymphatic trunk .
80. Arteries involved in establishing collateral circulation to the lower limb in Coarctation of Aorta of the post-ductal type are all except Vertebral artery. It has no known branches in the neck and thorax.
81. Hypoglossal nerve injury is characterized by all except sensory impairment over the affected side of the tongue.
82. Absolute contra-indication for MRI is cardiac pacemaker.
83. PACS in medical science stands for Picture Archiving and Communication System.
84. Loss of right cardiac silhouette on plain chest radiograph is indicative of right middle lobe Pathology .
85. Snowman configuration of heart on plain chest radiograph is indicative of Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection.
86. Egg-on-side shape of the heart on a plain chest radiograph is a feature of Uncorrected transposition of great arteries.
87. MRI feature of Alzheimer’s disease is temporo-parietal atrophy.
88. Millard Gubler syndrome is characterized by all except V th nerve palsy.
89. Lhermitte Duclos disease is characterized by thickened cerebellar folia.
90. Lesion in Wernicke’s area in the categorical hemisphere leads to rapid senseless speech.
91. Most common cause of neonatal seizures is Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy.
92. Facial nerve injuries are most commonly associated with transverse petrosal fractures.
93. Nerve injury with best prognosis is radial n injury
94. True about amebic meningoencephalitis is – diagnosis is by demonstration of trophozoites in the CSF.but in acantho one doesnot get tropho in csf.so the option amoebic encephalitis is a retively common cause of meningoencephalitis can be the ans. not very sure.
95. Episodes of transient behavioural disturbances with abnormal movements and amnesia for the events in a young female – all features are suggestive of Complex partial seizures (epilepsy as mentioned in the options) though dissociative disorder is difficult to rule out and the one feature that helps in doing so is abnormal movements are not a common feature of dissociative disorder. not very sure.

96. Drug of choice for treatment of absence seizures is Valproate.
97. Drug of choice for uncomplicated alcohol withdrawal is Diazepam.
[snip]. Clinical features of Tardive dyskinesia in a elderly patient on long-term antipsychotics. The drug of choice for treatment is – Anticholinergics.
99. Neurotransmitter associated with a high risk of suicide is Serotonin.
100. Child who speaks little, plays by himself, has no friends and likes watching his hands has Autism. Autism has three essential features viz inadequate language development, inadequate socialization and stereotyped mannerisms and the child satisfies all criteria.
101. Plain radiograph signs of raised intracranial pressure are all except ballooning of sella. it is seen in acromegaly
102. Drug for prevention of neural tube defects is Folate.
103. Gold standard for the diagnosis of Vestibular schwannoma is contrast-enhanced MRI.
104. Specificity of a test is it’s ability to detect true negatives.
105. Statistical test of significance for comparison of average cholesterol levels between two groups of 50 patients each is students t test.
106. For study of head injury patients among casualty admissions – Poisson distribution. For comparison of sample means with that of the larger group form which the sample is taken Poisson is employed.
107. Any value obtained during a statistical test has a chance of being a normal value in the population parameters rather than being difference or deviation from the normal. P value represents that chance of a value obtained during a statistical test being normal rather than a deviation meaning P value of 0.01 indicated that the probability of declaring a difference when no difference exists is 1%..
108. A study comparing average asthma drug sales with asthma-related deaths in a locality during a time period is a type of Ecological study.
109. If Coefficients of variation of blood pressure and serum creatinine are 20 & 15 respectively it means SD of blood pressure is more than that of serum creatinine.
110. Mean < Median. Distribution is negatively skewed.
111. Best adjuvant in vaccines is Aluminium. In fact the best a cellular component that boosts the immune response but among the options the best is Aluminium.
112. Problem village is defined by all except Risk of Guineaworm infection.
113. Endemic ascites is caused by Pyrrolizidine.
114. An example of disability limitation is providing calipers for walking.
115. Nature of transmission of filarial parasite in mosquitoes is Cyclo-developmental.
116. Reference Indian male is characterized by all except – consumes 2200Kcal/day.
117. About hemolytic uremic syndrome in south Asia all are true except coombs positive anemia
118. Clinical and ECG features of Non ST-elevation MI. All are indicated in the management except thrombolytic therapy.
119. Drug used for stress echocardiography is Dobutamine.
120. torsades de pointes is characterized by long QT.
121. High altitude pulmonary edema is characterized by all except - …………. repeat
122. Treatment of Pulmonary hypertension involves all except beta-blockers.
123. Occipito-posterior position of fetal head in early labour. Next step – serial clinical examination and observation. Most correct. Most of the rest are delivered normally with very few going into arrested labour.
124. Young female with a previous LSCS delivery. Now in labour. Hematuria during delivery. Probable diagnosis is urethral trauma. Prolonged labour with a vesico-vaginal or urethra-vaginal fistula manifests with hematuria or urinary dribbling a few days after the delivery and not during delivery. Hematuria due to scar dehiscence or rupture is only when bladder is involved but hematuria is not a sign of impending scar rupture.
125. Most effective post-coital contraceptive is Levonorgestrel.
126. Most useful in the diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy is trans-vaginal US.
127. Most common mode of termination of ectopic involves vascular accident.
128. Next step in the evaluation of a premenopausal female presenting with post-coital bleeding is clinical examination and Pap smear examination.
129. Female on follow-up with CA-125 levels is showing rising levels of CA-125 in blood. Next step in the evaluation is – Not sure seemed like something that is oriented toward detecting the site of recurrence of the ovarian tumor and most likely it is CT. MRI though is equally competent it is not used frequently and hence CT is the better option.
130. Most common cause of maternal mortality in India is bleeding.
131. Sweating is absent in Heat stroke.
132. Corpus delicti means essence of crime or the body of crime.
133. Part last dissected during autopsy for asphyxial deaths is Neck.
134. Excessive sexual desire in males is Satyriasis.
135. Nocardia are positive for all stains except – Mucin stains. Kiram’s stain - I am not sure about. Whatever, the answer is between these two.
136. Malta fever is caused by Brucella melitensis.
137. All are caused by Parvovirus except Roseola infantum. The 4th option in the question was glomerulonephritis which is known to occur as a reactive phenomenon to Parvovirus infection.
138. True about Histoplasmosis is that infection in the initial stages is indistinguishable from Tuberculosis. alyhough the 4th option i.e. it is diagnosed by blood smear can be the ans.
139. True about non-tubercular Mycobacteria is that they often infect apparently healthy individuals.
140. True about hantavirus pulmonary syndrome is that infection is acquired by inhalation of rodent urine.
141. True about Mycoplasma are all except - ………………. cause turbidity
142. Drugs useful in the management of Scabies are a/e Ciclopirox olamine.
143. Keratoderma blenorrhagicum is caused by Reiter’s disease.
144. Reactive arthritis in adults is caused by e coli.gonococcus doesnot cause reactive arthritis.
145. Most common cause of Contact dermatitis in India is Parthenium.
146. Auspitz sign is associated with Plaque psoriasis.
147. HPV serotype associated venereal warts is type 6.
148. Chronic burrowing ulcer is caused by Microaerophilic streptococci.
149. All are features of diabetic autonomic neuropathy except bradycardia
150. Sulfonylurea-induced hypoglycemia can be differentiated from that due to Insulinoma by Insulin:Glucose ratio. A ratio more than 0.3 is diagnostic of hypoglycemia due to Insulinoma.
151. Features of Gestational diabetes mellitus are all except – 50gm glucose ic used for gct.75 gm is used in preg vs 50 gm in nonpreg conditions
152. Drug causing persistent neutropenia is – lomustine.
153. SIADH is caused by all except – d-Actinomycin.
154. Drug that decreases free water clearance is .not very sure.155. Buprenorphine is a partial opiate agonist.
156. Long-acting beta2 agonist is Salmeterol.
157. hort-acting non-depolarising muscle relaxant is Rapacurium.
158. True about Aminoglycosides a/e – they are bacteriostatic.
159. Cell wall synthesis inhibitor is Cefepime.
160. Antibiotic effective in fungal keratomycosis is Silver sulfadiazine.
161. Anti-dermatophytic and anti-candidal antifungal is Ketoconazole.
162. Cytochrome P450 inhibitor is Ketoconazole.
163. Drug that is a vestibular teratogen - ? chloroquine..given in dhinra
164. Drug that exhibits cross-resistance with Isoniazid is - Probably Ethionamide. No text reference. Only some vague info on the net.
.
166. Drugs useful in the treatment of H.pylori infection are all except …mozapride…….(the correct options were metronidazole, amoxicillin and omeprazole).
167. 2nd generation H1 anti-histaminics are a/e Cyclizine.
168. Which is a prodrug? Enalapril.
169. All are acetylated except – Metoclopramide.
170. All are atypical antipsychotics except – Thioridazine.
171. Risk of bone marrow suppression is highest with – Clozapine.
172. Rituximab is useful in the management of all except – paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria.
173. Imatinib is used in the management of GIST.
174. Loading dose of a drug depends on Volume of distribution.
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176. True about Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma of the stomach are a/e - ……………. surgery followed by chemo is the best treatment.
177. True about further management of breast cancer after breast conserving surgery in a pre-menopausal female is ……the option regarding chemo was the best option……………..
178. 6yr old girl with urinary retention and constipation. Probable diagnosis. – mostly rectal duplication cyst but sacrococcygeal teratoma is too difficult to ignore. Difficult to answer with surety. Pelvic neuroblastoma is less likely. Tricky but a good question.
179. Oral cancer with the least risk of lymph node metastasis (site) – Hard palate
180. External oblique, internal oblique and transverses abdominis are all only retracted laterally during surgery for ………………… (seems like Spigelian hernia. But not sure
181. Auxillary liver transplant is done for fulminant hepatic failure.
182. Steps to prevent delivery of hypoxic mixture during N2O Anaesthesia are all except – Nitrous oxide flow meter is located downstream of Oxygen flow meter.
183. Order of susceptibility of nerve fibre types to local anaesthetics is B C A
184. Most common cause of post-anaesthetic ARF is – systemic hypoperfusion.
185. Clinical features of Malignant otitis externa in a diabetic. Drug of choice for management is Ciprofloxacin.
186. Golgi tendon organ detects – dynamic tension. There are no receptors or organs to detect muscle length. All detect only tension or stretch.
187. Pulmonary circulation is different from systemic circulation in – Hypoxic vasoconstriction.
188. CSF pressure is primarily determined by – Cerebral blood flow.
189. Cerebral metabolic rate is dependent on all except - K levels
190. Venous return from lower limbs depends on a/e - fascia wali option……………….
191. Allodynia is - perceiving normally innocuous stimuli as painful.
192. Repeated sub-maximal stimulation of a receptor leads to - ?Accomodation ? Adaptation.
193. Material used for vertebroplasty is polymethyl methacrylate PMMA not very sure.
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194. Cardiac abnormality most commonly associated with Turner’s syndrome is Coarctation of Aorta.
195. Selective medium for V.cholerae is TCBS agar.
196. Not a component of HACEK – Acinetobacter baumannii.
197. Laryngocele arises from saccule of larynx.
198. Dactylography used first in India.
199. Equation for calculating ionic equilibrium – nernest equation.
200. Hair on end appearance is seen in Thalassemia.

kan · Credits: 4066 My Scrapbook

pls post any correcions.

drmickey · Credits: 348 My Scrapbook

hi guys ,acc to this key my score is 64%
when is the result coming out

aryakid · Credits: 24727 My Scrapbook

what bout u kan?

kan · Credits: 4066 My Scrapbook

i am getting about 67 - 70%.what about u aryakid?

aryakid · Credits: 24727 My Scrapbook

cool man congrats, i'm stuck at 60, so out of list

drsom · Credits: 801 My Scrapbook

how r u people calculating ur scores???... answers of about 35-37 questions r not known for sure... only AIIMS key has the correct answers... how r u calculating ur scores?

aryakid · Credits: 24727 My Scrapbook

well thats the clitch, there will be a big diff as to what we expect, be ready for a few surprises, good or bad

bilae · Credits: 2191 My Scrapbook

not many are posting their scores........am sure many will get high !

kan · Credits: 4066 My Scrapbook

come on friends,pls do reply.........at least post the corrections or at least doubts, i'm sure there will be many doubts...

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