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Quick Scroll UPSC -08-PAPER-II BY NADU 06.01.08 (4 months ago) #1

PLEASE IGNORE SPELLING MISTAKES!!!

UPSC -08

Paper-I :General ability,General medicine,Paediatrics


1.The genetically engineered “golden rice” is rich in
a.beta-carotene & magnesium
b.folic acid & iron
c.beta-carotene & iron
d.folic acid & magnesium

2.Which one the following plants is a source of a medical substance called Theophylline?
a.coca
b.tea
c.turmeric
d.vanilla

3.Which one of the following is generally used as a fungicide,while others are used as a insecticide ?
a.aldrin
b.dieldrin
c.heptachlor
d.hexachlorobenzene

4.Which of the following kinds of radiation is/are emitted by Uranium-238?
a.alpha rays only
b.alpha & beta rays
c.gamma rays only
d.alpha,beta,& gamma rays

5.Other than nitrogen & oxygen,which one of the following is the next most abundant gas in the dry air of lower atmosphere?
a.argon
b.carbon dioxide
c.helium
d.hydrogen

6.At which one of following cities do National highways No. 8,11 & 12 meets ?
a.delhi
b.jaipur
c.ajmer
d.udaipur

7.Which one of the following places doesn’t have an oil refinery ?
a.guwahati
b.mangalore
c.varanasi
d.visakhapatnam

8.A mixture of rain & snow is called :
a.Glaze
b.Frost
c.Shower
d.Sleet

9.One-third of the rajya sabha members retire every :
a.3 yrs
b.4 yrs
c.2 yrs
d.1 yrs

10.Which of the following allocates business to different Ministries/Departments in the govt. of INDIA ?
a.prime minister’e office
b.cabinate secretariate
c.ministry of parlimentary affairs
d.lok sabha secretariat

11.Which one of the following has the primary function of distrbuting the revenus between the centre & states?
a.dept. of expenditure in the union govt.
b.finance commission
c.inter-state council
d.planning commission

12.If a Panchayat is dissolved,elections are to be held within
a.1 month
b.3 month
c.6 month
d.1 yr

13.With reference to the parliament of INDIA,the question as to whether a bill is a money bill or not is decided by who among the following?
a.president of INDIA
b.prime minister
c.speaker of lok sabha
d.union finance minister

14.How many articles of the constitution of INDIA have provisions for the “Right to freedom of religion” ?
a.2
b.3
c.4
d.5

15.Consider the following statements:
1.The vice president of INDIA is eleted by the members of both the houses of parliament
2.The deputy chairman of the rajya sabha is nominated by the chaiman of rajya sabha.

Which of the stataements given above is/are correct?
a.1 only
b.2 only
c.both 1 &2
d.none

16.Which among the following was first an acting president of INDIA & later the president of INDIA?
a.B.D.jatti
b.Fafhruddin Ali Ahmed
c.V.V.Giri
d.Zakir Hussain


17.As per census 2001,which one among the following states has shown the highest growth rate of population during 1991-2001?
a.tripura
b.nagaland
c.orissa
d.Rajasthan

18.Which one of the following is in the area of tropical rain forests?
a.Dudhwa national park
b.Satpura national park
c.Silent valley national park
d.Valley of flowers national park

19.Among the following,which is/are the greatest contributor to global warming as a consequence of human activities & life style?
a.carbon dioxide
b.chlorofluorocarbons
c.methane
d.ozone

20.Under the national maternal benefit scheme,what is the financial assistance given per birth for the first two birth to all pregnant women who attain 19 yrs of age & belong to BPL(below poverty line) households?
a.500/-
b.1000/-
c.1500/-
d.2000/-


21.As per the national population policy 2000,the medium-term objective is to bring the total fertility rate to replacement level by which yr?
a.2008
b.2010
c.2012
d.2014


22.For inventing which one of the following is Marc Koska best known?
a.Artificial blood
b.Disposable K1-syringe
c.vaccine against polio
d.ELISA test

23.Which one of the following describes the flouring substance asafoeetida(Hing)?
a.dried leaf extract
b.exudate from chopped roots
c.pith of stem boiled & dried
d.dried & hardened paste of fruit


24.What is the main constituent gas in CNG?
a.acetylene
b.butane
c.ethane
d.methane

25.In which yr did the Kyoto protocol came into force?
a.2001
b.2003
c.2005
d.2007

26.Consider the following statements :
1.Globally,diarrhoea kills more people than TB or malaria
1.Globally,diarrhoea is the second biggest killer of children.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a.1 only
b.2 only
c.1 & 2
d.none


27.Which one of the following was the major outcome of the famous Earth summit in Rio de Janeiro in 1992?
a.setting up of bio-safety standards
b.global strategy for control of panendemics
c.framework convention on climate change
d.framework on strategies for sustainable development


28.Consider the following statements:
1.EI Nino is a weather phenomenon observed in indian ocean
2.EI Nino is linked to droughts in nothern india

which of the statements given above is correct?
a.1 only
b.2 only
c.1 & 2
d.none

29.InINDIA,what is the approximate percentage of total land area which is categorised as nationally protected?
a.3%
b.5%
c.7%
d.9%

30.In which of the following country is life expectancy at birth is highest?
a.china
b.INDIA
c.srilanka
d.napal

31.Apt with acute chest pain,12 lead ECG shows ST elevation in leads II,III & aVF develops hypotension(BP-80/60 mmHg).Examination reveals elevated JVP,Kussmaul’s sign & hepatomegaly with clear lung fields.What is treatment modality of choice to correct hypotension ?
a.volume expansion with saline
b.dopamine infusion
c.dobutamine infusion
d.adrenaline infusion

32.A 45 yr old man presents with sudden onset of breathlessness & chest pain.Examination revealed tachypnoea,cynosis,hypotension,raised JVP,widely split second heart sound with rt.ventricular gallop.What is the most likely diagnosis?
a.Acute MI with cardiogenic shock
b.acute pericarditis
c.massive pulmonary embolism
d.pneumothorax


33.In which of the following differential cyanosis found:
a.VSD with reversal of shunt
b.PDA with reversal of shunt
c.ASD with reversal of shunt
d.tetralogy of fallot

34.A pt. Complains of intermittent claudication,dizziness & headhach.Which one the following is the likely diagnosis?
a.coarctation of aorta
b.PDA
c.tetralogy of fallot
d.ASD

35.What are the exacerbatuions of bronchial asthama,that occurs with little or no warning, called?
a.Brittle asthma
b.acute severe asthma
c.poorly controlled asthma
d.nocturnal asthma

36.DOC for exercise induced bronchial asthma:
a.theophylline
b.Ipratropium
c.crmolyn sodium
d.prednisolone

37.Which of the following features is not true about hypersensitive pneumonitis (extrinsic allergic alveolitis)?
a.Eosinophilia is a consistent feature
b.elevated ESR,C-reactive prt & RA factor are usually found
c.Examination of serum precipitins against suspected antigens is an important diagnostic workup
d.apical sparing is common

38.A 60 yr old chronic smoker presents with retrosternal chest pain with diaphorosis.The ECG shows ST elevation in V2-V4 leads for which primary PTCA & stent placement have been done.Which of the following drugs is not to be advised in the first 48 hrs of intervention?
a.A bciximab
b.aspirin
c.enalapril
d.dexamethasone


39.Microvesicular type of fatty liver is seen in a/e:
a.acute fatty liver of pregnancy
b.alcoholic liver disease
c.reye’s syndrome
d.phosphorus intoxication


40.The following drugs for the treatment of peptic ulcer disease alter gastric acid pH except:
a.ranitidine
b.sucralfate
c.rabeprazole
d.pirenzepine


41.In apatient of nephrotic syndrome with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis,which one of the following micro-organism in most commonly involved?
a.proteus
b.Escherichia
c.pneumococcus
d.staphylococcus


42.Which of the following renal injuries is characteristic of lithium toxicity ?
a.acute tubulointerstitial nephritis
b.acute tubular necrosis
c.nephrogenic DI
d.proliferative GN


43.Nephrotic syndrome is characterised by a/e:
a.hypoalbuminemia
b.hypolipidemia
c.lipiduria
d.prturia >3.5 gm/1.73 m2 /24 hrs


44.A 45 yr old female having headach of one week duration was found to have tender thickened cordlike structure on the scalp & high ESR.what is the most likely diagnosis?
a.tension headach
b.migrain
c.temporal arteritis
d.Tb meningitis


45.Following are components of POLYSOMNOGRAPGY except:
a.ECG
b.electrooculography
c.arterial carbon dioxide monitoring
d.pulse oximetry

46.Which one of the following tumor spread commonly to meninges?
a.astrocytoma
b.medulloblastoma
c.meningioma
d.glioblastoma

47.Site of lesion in Wallenberg syndrome:
a.lateral medulla
b.medial medulla
c.pontomedullary juction
d.dorsal midbrain

48.Drug that can induce parkinsonism include a/e:
a.reserpine
b.metoclopromide
c.trihexyphenidyl
d.haloperidol

49.Which of the following condition is MC cause of seizure in late infancy & early adulthood?
a.febrile seizure
b.seizures due to CNS TB
c.hypoglycemic seizures
d.hypocalcemic seizures

50.Which one of the following is a subcortical dementis :
a.Alzheimer’s disease
b.huntington’s chorea
c.normal pressure hydrocephalus
d.vit B12 deficiency

51.A middle aged male presents with sudden onset ipsilateral 6th N.palsy,ipsilateral infranuclear facial palsy & contralateral hemiplegia.Which one of the following syndromes is most likely ?
a.Wallenberg syndrome
b.Claude’s syndrome
c.weber’s syndrome
d.millard-gubler’s syndrome

52.Which one of the following is the MC immunologic type of multiple myeloma:
a.IgG kappa light chain
b.TgA kappa light chain
c.IgD lambda chain
d.IgM type

53.Which one of the following is not a feature of polycythemia vera?
a.elevated red cell mass
b.normal arterial oxygen saturation
c.splenomegaly
d.elevated plasma erythropoitin levels

54.Translocation of bcr-abl gene is charachteristic of :
a.CML
b.AML
c.CLL
d.ALL


55.Which one of the following is a known stimulus to production of erythropoitin :
a.hypoxia
b.hypercarbia
c.decompensated kidney disease
d.interleukin-3


56.An adult who develops pure red cell aplasia shud be explicitly evaluated for which of the following:
a.carcinoid syndrome
b.lymphoma
c.thymoma
d.seminoma


57.Which one the following is not true of henoch-Schonlein purpura?
a.polyarthralgia
b.cure of disease by steroids
c.hematuria
d.acute abdominal pain


58.Which one the following drugs has a structure that is analogous to thyroxine & contains huge amt of iodine?
a.clofibrate
b.colistipol
c.acetazolamide
d.amiodarone


59.Conditions a/w hypercalcemia with low PTH include a/e:
a.sarcoidosis
b.bronchial carcinoma
c.plasmacytoma
d.multiple endocrine neoplasia


60.Following are features of primary adrenal insufficiency except:
a.low serum ACTH
b.hyponatremia
c.hyperkalemia
d.hypotension


61.Hyperkalemia may be observed in following conditions except:
a.renal failure
b.primary hypoaldosteronism
c.cushing’s syndrome
d.cyclosporin therapy


62.Which one of the following is not likely to be a feature in a pt. With secondary hypothyroidism?
a.low free T4
b.low TSH
c.low ACTH
d.low prolactin


63.Which of the following is not true about bulimia nervosa?
a.invariable wt loss with endocrine disorder
b.occurance of both binge eating & inappropriate compensatory behaviour at least twice weekly,on an average,for 3 months
c.recurrent episode of binge eating
d.recurrentself induced vomiting

64.Which one of the following is a/w shift of potassium into cells:
a.calcium gluconate administration
b.IV frusemide
c.dialysis
d.salbutamol inhalation


65.Which one of the following features is not true about Wilson’s disease?
a.hepatolenticular degenration
b.auto.recessive transmission
c.sr.ceruloplasmin increased
d.urinary copper increased


66.Which one of the following statement is correct :
a.Most of the individuals with chronic hyperuricemia develops gout
b.90% of pt. With gout have undersecretion of uric acid
c.gout mostly affcet premenopausal women
d.DOC for acute gout is Allopurinol


67.A 40 yr old man presents with loss of libido,lethargy,headach & galactorrhoea.He is most likely suffering from :
a.testicular atrophy
b.hyperprolactenaemia
c.addison’s disease
d.adult hypopituitarism


68.EB virus has been a/w the following disorder except:
a.burkitt’s lymphoma
b.nasopharyngeal carcinoma
c.hairy cell leukemia
d.oral hairy leukoplakia


69.Which of the following statement is true about TB in an HIV-infected pt?
a.upper lobe pulmonary cavity disease is an unusual manifestation on TB
b.extra pulmonary TB is an unusual manifestation of TB
c.HIV infected pt. With pulmonary TB are usually diagnosed with positive sputum smears
d.TB is MC cause of meningitis


70.Human is the reservoir for which one of the following rickettial disease?
a.epidemic typhus
b.rocky mountain spotted fever
c.endemic typhus
d.scrub typhus


71.Lepromatous leprosy is consistent with the following except:
a.Type II lepra reaction can occur
b.inflammatory reaction is sparse
c.loss of sensation occurs late
d.surface of the skin lesion is smooth & shiny


72.Following are considered as stigmata of congenital syphillis except:
a.Hutchinson’s incisors
b.saddle nose
c.aortic regurgitation
d.sabre tibia


73.Following drugs have been found to be useful in primary pulmonary hypertension except:
a.calcium channel blocker
b.prostacyclins
c.beta blockers
d.sildenafil


74.Preferred drug for treatment of hypertension in pregnancy:
a.enalapril
b.prazocin
c.indapamide
d.alpha methyl dopa

75.Following is an anticonvulsant of choice for alcohol withdrowl seizures?
a.phenytoin
b.sodium valproate
c.carbamazepine
d.benzodiazepine


76.INH toxicity may cause the following except:
a.psychosis
b.nephropathy
c.hepatitis
d.peripheral neuropathy


77.Praziquantel is an effective drug to treat the following conditions except:
a.shistosomiasis
b.cysticercosis
c.hydatid disease
d.trichinosis


78.Which of the following is not consistent with pellagra?
a.pellagra can occur in carcinoid syndrome
b.diarrhoea & dementia are usual features
c.casal’s necklace may be seen around the neck & upper chest
d.response to niacin can be very low in early stages


79.Causes of pruritus in 3rd trimester of pregnancy include a/e:
a.prurigo gestationis
b.obstetric cholestasis
c.pemphigoid gestationis
d.pruritic folliculitis

80.Following disease can cause [bleep] lesions in skin except:
a.pemphigus
b.impetigo
c.toxic epidermal necrolysis
d.pityriasis rosea

81.Nikolsky’s sign is charachteristic of which one of the following?
a.steven-johnson’s syndrome
b.psoriasis
c.darier’s disease
c.pemphigus

82.A 60 yr old man with DM presents with painless, swollen rt ankle jt.radiograph of ankle shows bony distortion with joint disorganisation & a no. of loose bodies.What is the most probable diagnosis?
a.osteoarthritis
b.Rh.arthritis
c.Charcot’s joint
d.Clutton’s joint

83.Following are features of MARFAN’S syndrome except:
a.arachnodactaly
b.reduced joint mobility
c.dislocation of lens
d.mitral regurgitation

84.Which is not the first rank symptom of schizophrenia?
a.auditary halluconation
b.insertion of thoughts
c.delutional percetion
d.compulsive acts that releives the tension


85.sECT is currently advocated as line of treatment in following conditions except:
a.catatonic schizophrenia
b.severe depression with psychosis
c.maniac depressive psychosis
d.OCD


86.Which of the following antiepileptic drug can be used as mood stabilising drug?
a.phenobarbitone
b.phenytoin
c.sodium valporate
d.lamotrigin


87.Following are complication of cocain poisoning except:
a.angina & MI
b.epileptic seizures
c.hypothermia
d.hypertension

88.Which one of the following disorder is auto. Recessive?
a.homocystinuria
b.G6PD deficiency
c.myotonic dystrophy
d.otospongiosis


89.ALPORT’S syndrome is charachterised by following except:
a.auto.dominant
b.collagen type IV defect
c.lenticonus
d.sensorineural deafness


90.Which one of the following is not an alkalyting agent?
a.melphalan
b.methotrexate
c.cyclophosphamide
d.ifosfamide

91.Following factors shift the oxygen dissociation curve to rt except:
a.hypoxia
b.fever
c.increase in 2,3 DPG
d.alkalosis

92.Which one of the following doesn’t cause small vessel vasculitis?
a.churg-strauss syndrome
b.HSP
c.kawasaki
d.microscopic polyangitis

93.Following type of cancer commonly metastasize to CNS except:
a.ovarian
b.breast
c.melanoma
d.ALL


94.High anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in :
a.ureterosigmoidostomy
b.hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism
c.proximal(type 2) renal tubular acidosis
d.CRF

95.Following biochemical markers are a measure of bone resorption except:
a.sr.alkaline phosphatase
b.sr.cross-linked N-telopeptidase
c.sr. cross-linked C-peptidase
d.urine deoxy-pyridinoline


96.Following is not a charachteristic feature of rh.arthritis?
a.sacroiliatis
b.metacarpophalangeal joint involvement
c.symmetrical arthritis
d.positive rh. Factor

97.Read the following description of a cardiovascular examination :
“cardiac apex is displaced downward & putward with forcible apex & hyperkinetic precordium.There is no systolic thrill.First sound is masked by systolic murmur.Second sound is wide split,that becomes wider with inspiration.Athird sound is heard at apex.There is pansystolic mumur heard at apex & also left sternal border.Chest X-ray reveals elevation of theleft bronchus.”
Which of the following disorder best siuts the description given above?
a.VSD
b.mitral regurgitation
c.PDA
d.tricuspid regurgitation


[snip].Usual causative organism of bronchiolitis in children ?
a.H.influnza type B
b.RSV
c.parainflunza type II
d.rhinovirus


99.Consider the following :
1.bread
2.noodles
3.dosa

Which of the above food item shud not be given to a child with celiac disease?

a.1 only
b.1 & 2only
c.1,2,3
d.3 only

100.Which of the following a/w anti-glomerular basement mebrane antibody?
a.IgA nephropathy
b.membranous glomerulonephritis
c.goodpasture syndrome
d.membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

101.Match list I with listII & select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

list I list II
(hemolytic anemia) (peri.smear finding)

A.ABO hemolytic ds. 1.microspherocytes

B.G6PD def. 2.Heinz bodies

C.thalasemia 3.basophilic stippling

D.rh.hemolytic ds 4. nucleated red cells

CODES:
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 1 3 2 4
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 4 3 2 1


102.Pseudohypoparathyroidism is charachterised by the following except:
a.cataract
b.index finger longer than middle
c.increase in space between fingers
d.normal serum calcium level


103.Massive aminoaciduria without a corresponding increase in plasma aminoa cid level is charachteristic of which one of the following diseases?
a.homocystinuria
b.hartnup disease
c.tyrosinemia
d.maple syrup urine disease


104.What is the period of infectivity in measles?
a.from 7 days before to 7 days after rash
b.from 3 days before to 5 days after rash
c.from 9 days before to 12 days after rash
d.from 5 days before to 9 days after rash


105.Primary dentition is complete by which age?
a.1.5 yrs
b.2.5 yrs
c.3.5 yrs
4.5 yrs

106.Following about prenatal steroids are true except:
a.They cause 50% reduction in respiratory distress syndrome & intraventricular haemorrhage
b.These are advocated to mothers at risk of preterm delivery at 24-34 wks of gestation
c.These can be safely administered to mothers with hypertension & DM
d.These can be given even in presence of chorioamnionitis clinically

107.Following factors contribute to hypothermia in preterm babies except:
a.decreased subcutaneous fat & brown fat
b.large surface area in relation to body wt
c.less oxygen consumption
d.increased muscular activity

108.What is the defect in vit-D dependent type II rickets?
a.end-organ resistance to 1,25(OH)2 D
b.defective 25 hydroxylation in liver
c.defective 1 hydroxylation in kidney
d.defective absorption of calcium

109.You were posted at PHC catering to a population of 1,20,000.In the yr 2006,a total number of 2500 live born babies were delivered.Number of children dying under one yr of age during 2006 was 150.What is the infant mortality rate of this population?
a.60
b.70
c.80
d.90

110.When can a severely malnourished child be safely discharged from the hospital?
a.the child attins his ht. For age
b.the child reaches his ideal wt for ht
c.the child loses edema & starts gaining wt
d.the child attains wt for his age


111.In this q. a pedigree chart was given & its dianosis was asked!
Options were
a.neurofibromatosis
b.beta-thalasemia
c.color blindness
d.vit-D resistant rickets

Sorry friends can’t post the pedegree chart.


112.Consider the following first aid measures with reference to a child with burns:
a.extinuish flames by rolling the pt. On ground
b.apply cold water or ice to burn area
c.apply a topical medication
d.open up the blisters

Which of the above first aid measures is/are recommended as immediate management of burns?
a.1 only
b.1,2 & 3 only
c.2& 4 only
d.1,2,3 & 4

113.Hair on end appearance on skull radiograph classically seen in which one of the following conditions?
a.hydrocephalus
b.thalasemia
c.rickets
d.chronic malaria

114.Match list I & list II & select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

list-I list-II
(tumor) (histopath.characteristic)
a.rhabdomyosarcoma 1.nodular sclerosing
b.hodgkin’s disease 2.birbeck’s granules
c.langerhans cell 3.small round cells
histiocytosis

CODES:

A B C
a. 3 1 2
b. 1 3 2
c. 3 2 1
d. 2 1 3


115.In a child with OP-poisoning which one of the following is correct order of priority in management?
a.Pralidoxime,diazepam,atropine,clear airway
b.clear airway,atropine,diazepam,prelidoxime
c.diazepam,atropine,clear airway,pralidoxime
d.atropine,pralidoxime,diazepam,clear airway


116.Measles vaccine at a primary health center shud be stored at which temprature?
a.–20 degree ceti.
b.zero deg.cent
c.+2 to +8 degree.cent
d.any temp.not exceeding room temp.

DIRECTIONS: the following four items consists of two statements,one labelled as the “Assertion(A)” & the other as “Reason( R )”.U are to examine these two statements carefully & select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
CODES:
a.Both A & R are individually true & R is correct explanation of A
b.Both A & R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c.A is true but R is false
d.A is false bur R is true

117.Assertion ( A) :mortality rate is high for pneumonia due to MRSA
Reason (R ) : MRSA mainly affects individuals of extreme ages


118. Assertion (A) : For treatment of an episode of severe asthma,inhalation is the preffered route for inducing bronchodilatation.
Reason ( R) :Intravenous administration of bronchodilator offers no advantage over inhaled route.


119. Assertion (A) :proximal renal tubular acidosis is chracterised by hyperkalemia.
Reason ( R ) : metabolic acidosis leads to hyperkalemia by shifting potassium from intracellular to extracellular space.


120. Assertion (A ) : Preffered thrombolytic regimen for treatment of pulmonary thromboembolism is 100 mg of tPA administered as continuous peripheral intravenous infusion over 2 hrs
Reasons (R ): Pateints appear to respond to thrombolysis for upto 7 days after the pulmonary thromboembolism has occurred.
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Quick Scroll PAPER-II 06.01.08 (4 months ago) #2

UPSC -2008 PAPER-II
SURGERY,Gynaecology AND OBSTETRICS,PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE


1.A pt. Aged 35 yrs has cystosarcoma phylloides.What is the treatment of choice?
a.lumpectomy
b.simple mastectomy alone
c.simple mastectomy+axillary clearance
d.simple mastectomy+loco regional radiation


2.Common bile duct injuries are most commonly seen in :
a.radical gastrectomy
b.penetrating injuries of abdomen
c.ERCP & sphincterotomy
d.laproscopic cholecystectomy operation


3.Fibroblast in healing wound is derived from:
a.local mesenchyme
b.epithelium
c.endothelium
d.vascular fibrosis


4.Match list I & list II & select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
list-I list-II
(agent type) (product name)
A. debriding agent 1.opsite,tegaderm
B. polymeric film 2.porcine skin,amnion
C. hydrocolloids 3.Benoxyl benzoic acid
D. biological membranes 4.comfeel granuflex

CODES:
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 2 4 1 3

5.Which one of the following factors is labelled as cytokines in the pathogenesis of SIRS(systemic inflammatory response syndrome)?
a.nitric oxide
b.complements
c.leukotriens
d.tumor necrosis factor


6.Radiotherapy is the treatment of choice for which one of the following tumors?
a.verrucous carcinoma
b.malignant melanoma
c.marjolin’s ulcer
d.rodent ulcer


7.Match list-I with list-II & select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
list-I list-II
(pathogenesis) (cyst type)
A.persistent normal vestigial remnants 1.dermoid
B. hamartomas 2.meckel’s diverticulum
C.remnant of vitellointestinal tract 3.cystic hygroma
D.ectopia of various tissues 4.thyroglossal,branchial cyst

CODE:
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 1 3 2 4
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 4 3 2 1


8.Which one of the following is the most common tumor to produce metastasis to cervical lymh nodes?
a.glottic carcinoma
b.nasopharyngeal carcinoma
c.carcinoma base of tounge
d.carcinoma lip

9.In primry hyperparathyroidism which one of the following is the most common finding?
a.solitary adenoma
b.double adenoma
c.hyperplasia of two or more glands
d.carcinoma


10.Crush syndrome is managed by which one of the following?
a.20% dextrose
b.hydrocortisone
c.maintaining high urine output
d.acidification of urine


11.Which one of the following is not a symptom of atherosclerosis occlusive disease at the bifurcation of aorta(Leriche syndrome)?
a.claudication of the buttock & thigh
b.claudication of the calf
c.sexual impotence
d.acidification localised to the feet


12.Cocket & Dodd’s operation is performed for which one of the following?
a.saphenofemoral flush ligation
b.subfascial ligation
c.deep vein thrombosis
d.diabetic foot


13.Which vital structures is preserved during radical neck dissection?
a.vagus nerve
b.submandibular gland
c.sternocleidomastoid
d.internal jugular vein


14.Which of the following receptors are missing from the surface of the intestines?
a.temprature
b.pressure
c.distension
d.touch


15.Mallory-Weiss tear occurs at :
a.gastro-esophageal junction
b.duodenal-jejunal flexure
c.ileo-caecal junction
d.colo-rectal junction


16.Consider the following statements regarding paget’s disease of the breast:
1.It is a malignant disease
b.diagnosis can be established by scrape cytology.
c.lymph nodes involvement is an associated clinical features
d.treatment of choice is simple mastectomy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a.1,2 & 4 only
b.1,2 & 3 only
c.3 & 4only
d.1,2,3 & 4

17.Which breast carcinoma is multi-centric & bilateral?
a.ductal
b.lobular
c.mucoid
d.colloid


18.What is the most common malignancy affecting spleen ?
a.angiosarcoma
b.hamartoma
c.secondaries
d.lymphoma


19.Which one of the following is the treatment of gall stone ileus?
a.cholecystectomy alone
b.removal of obstruction
c.cholesystectomy,closure of fistula & removal of stone by enterostomy
d.cholecystectomy with closure of fistula


20.Consider the following conditions:
1.choledochal cyst
2.choledocholithiasis
3.sclerosing cholangitis
d.mirizzi’s syndrome
Pain,fever & jaundice are associated with which one of the above conditions?
a.1,2& 3 only
b.1,2,3 & 4
c.1,3&4 only
d.2& 4 only


21.Which one of the following is management of pancreatic abscess?
a.needle aspiration
b.gastrocystostomy
c.external drainage
d.jejunocystostomy


22.Treatment of choice for desmoid tumor?
a.irradiation
b.wide excision
c.local excision
d.local excision following radiation

23.Match list-I with list-II & select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
list-I list-II
(disease) (sign)
A. acute cholecystitis 1.kehr’s sign
B.acute pancreatitis 2.courvaisie’s sign
C. splenic rupture 3.cullen’s sign
d.pancreatic cancer 4.murphy’s sign
codes:
A B C D
a. 2 1 3 4
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 2 3 1 4
d. 4 1 3 2


24.When a ‘spontaneous perforation’ of esophagus occurs as a result of severe barotrauma while a person vomits aginst a closed glottis,what is the condition known as ?
a.Mallory-weiss syndrome
b.plummer vinson syndrome
c.kartergener syndrome
d.Boerhaave syndrome


25.Match list-I with list-II & select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(radiological finding regarding esophagus) (disease)
A. smooth pencil shaped narrowing of 1.Diffuse spasm
lower segment
B.esophageal web 2.esophageal carcinoma

C.rat tail appear. 3.achalasia of esophagus

D.corkscrew esophagus 4.plummer-vinson syndrome

CODES:
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 3 2 4 1
d. 1 4 2 3


26.Which one of the following stomach cancers carries the best prognosis?
a.superficial spreading type
b.ulcerative type
c.liniticus plastica type
d.polypoidal type


27.Most common type of carcinoma of the rt colon?
a.stenosing
b.ulcerative
c.tubular
d.fyngating


28.High or low fistula in ano is termed according to its internal opening present with reference to :
a.anal canal
b.dentate line
c.anorectal ring
d.sacral promontary


29.The following are indications for perfoming thoracotomy after blunt injury of the chest except:
a.1000 ml drainage after placing an intercostal tube
b.continuous bleeding thr’ intercostal tube of more than 200 ml/hr for 3 or more hrs
c.cardiac tamponade
d.rib #


30.What is the first step taken in case of multiple injuries to face & neck?
a.blood transfusion
b.IV fluids
c.reconstruction
d.mainatainanace of airway


31.Which one of the following is not a wound closure technique?
a.partal thickness graft
b.complete graft
c.vascular graft
d.musculocutaneous graft


32.Ductous arteriosus closes in response to :
a.decrease in peripheral oxygen saturation
b.indomethacin therapy
c.PGE1
d.increase in pulmonary vascular resistance


33.Clinical features a/w coarctation of aortain older children are the following except:
a.upper body hypertension
b.prominent pulsation in the neck
c.fatiguaableness,tiredness in leg
d.absence of flow murmur over scapular region


34.What is the treatment of choice in severe flail chest?
a.IPPV
b.strapping
c.wiring
d.nasal oxygen


35.With reference to ESWL, consider the following statements:
a.It is the treatment of choice for stones larger than 2 cm
b.it is c/I in pregnancy
c.it is TOC for lower pole stones
d.it is a/w stein stress phenomenon
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a.1,2& 3 only
b.2 & 4only
c.3 & 4 only
d.1,2,3 & 4


36.Typical appearance of “spider leg” on excreatory urography is seen in :
a.hydronephrosis
b.polycystic kidney
c.medullary sponge kidney
d.renal cell carcinoma


37.What is the most common presentation of intracranial aneurysm?
a.coarctation of aorta
b.systemic hypertension
c.hypotension
d.intracranial haemorrhage


38.Pneumatosis intestinalis on a plain abdominal radiograph is seen in which of the following?
a.congenital atresia of bowel
b.meconium ileus
c.volvulus neonatorum
d.necrotising enterocolitis


39.With reference to fresh frozen plasma,which one the following statements is not correct?
a.it is used as volume expander
b.it is stored at –40 to –50 degree
c.it is a source of coagulation factors
d.it is given in a dose of 12-15 ml/kg body wt.


40.Vocal cord palsy in thyroid surgery is due to injury to:
a.superficial laryngeal nerve
b.recurrent laryngeal nerve
c.ansa cervacalis
d.vagus nerve


41.Cholestasis may lead to the following complications except:
a.intrauterine fetal death
b.meconium stained liquor
c.preterm labour
d.neonatal jaundice


42.In modern obstetrics,the internal podalic version is indicated in the presence of:
a.transverse lie with obstructed labour
b.2nd transverse twin
c.cord prolapse with live baby
d.extended breech presentation


43.Which one of the following statements regarding breast feeding is not correct?
a.breast feeding shud start within 1 hr after a normal delivery
b.colostrum shud be given to the baby
c.time schedule breast feeding is preferable to demand breast feeding
d.breast feeding alone shud be given for the first 6 months


44.Medical management of ectopic pregnancy can be done in the following except:
a.period of gestation 5 wks
b.beta-HCG level 6000 IU
c.absent fetal cardiac activity
d.gestational sac diameter 3 cm


45.Consider the following in a new born:
1.heart rate of 110
2.slow & irregular respiratory effort
3.flaccid muscle tone
4.no reflex irritability
5.blue colour
What is the apgar score in this case?
a.1
b.3
c.5
d.7

46.Non-immune hydrops fetalis is due to the following except:
a.alpha thalassemia major
b.functional abnormalities of heart
c.ABO incompatibility
d.toxoplasmosis


47.Consider the following statements regarding a cephal-haematoma:
1.present at birth
2.it can occur after a normal delivery
3.Commonest site is over the parietal bone
4.the bleeding is sub-periosteal
Which of the statements given above are correct in the context of cephal-haematoma?
a.1 & 4
b.1 & 2 only
c.1,2, & 3
d.2,3 & 4


48.In a newborn,what is the normal respiratory rate?
a.10-20 breath/min
b.30-40 breath/min
c.40-60 breath/min
d.60-80 breath/min


49.The following changes occur in idiopathic respiratory distess syndrome of the newborn except?
a.alveolar collpase
b.left to rt vascular shunting through the alveolar capillaries
c.increased pulmonary vascular resistance
d.dilatation of the ductus arteriosus


50.Which of the following is the earliest changes in the endometrium after ovulation?
a.secretion in the lumina of the endometrial glands
b.subnuclear vacuolation
c.corckscrew shaped glands
d.stromal cells become oedematous,enlarged & polyhedral in shape


51.Consider the following four events of development of fetus:
1.development of external genitalia
2.appearance of scalp hair
3.centres of ossification in bones
4.formation of eyelashes & eye-brows
What is the order in which they appear from lower to higher gestation?
a.1,3,2,4
b.1,3,4,2
c.3,1,4,2
d.3,1,2,4


52.In which of the following,chorionic villous sampling procedure can be adopted for diagnosis?
a.achondroplasia
b.neural tube defects
c.marfan’s syndrome
d.trisomy 18


53.From which of the following does clitoris develop:
a.congenital ridge
b.urogenital folds
c.genital tubercle
d.labioscrotal swelling


54.Which of the following physiological changes first to appear at the onset of puberty?
a.growth of breast & increase in ht
b.appearance of pubic & axillary hair
c.onset of menstruation
d.acne on the face


55.Which of the following is the definative treatment of adenomyosis?
a.LN 6-intrauterine device
b.GnRH analogues
c.danazol
d.hysterectomy


56.Which one of the following conditions of the endometrium is a/w a significantly increased risk of cancer?
a.adenomatous hyperplasia
b.hyperplasia with atypia
c.cystic glandular hyperplasia
d.proliferative phase


57.In an adult phenotypic female,absence of uterus suggest diagnosis of which one of the following?
a.Mayer rokitansky kuster hauser syndrome
b.congenital adrenal hyperplasia
c.true hermaphrodite
d.5-alpha-reductase deficiency


58.Which one of the following drugs are effective in DUB when the endometrial biopsy shows secretary pattern?
1.Medroxyprogesterone acetate
2.combined preparation of progesterone & estrogens
3.PG synthetase inhibitors
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a.1,2,3
b.1,2 only
c.2,3 only
d.1,3 only


59.Which one of the following genital infections is a/w preterm labour?
a.HPV
b.tricmonas vaginitis
c.monilial vaginitis
d.bacterial vaginosis


60.The following are long term complications of PCOS(polycystic ovarian syndrome) except:
a.type II DM
b.cardiovascular disease
c.endometrial cancer
d.ovarian cancer


61.Among the four steps in the Manchester operation done for prolapse,which one of the following is the correct order in which they are done?
a.amputation of cervix,D&C,Futhergill suture,haemostasis
b.D&C,amputation of cervix,Futhergill suture,haemostasis
c.D&C,Futhergill suture,Amputation of cervix,haemostasis
d.D&C, Amputation of cervix,haemostasis,Futhergill suture


62.HAIR-AN syndrome is found in :
a.congenital adrenal hyperplasia
b.luteal phase defect
c.polycystic ovarian syndrome
d.pheochromocytoma


63.A pregnant woman in III trimester has normal blood pressure when standing & sitting.When supine,blood pressure drops to 90/50.What is the diagnosis?
a.compression of uterine artery
b.compression of aorta
c.compression of IVC
d.compression of internal iliac vessels


64.Which one of the following is the WHO criterion for oligospermia in seminal fluid analysis?
a.sperm count less than 50 million/HPF
b.sperm count less than 40 million/HPF
c.sperm count less tha 30 million/HPF
d.sperm count less than 20 million /HPF


65.Which of the following are the causes of retroversion of the uterus?
1.PID
2.prolapse uterus
3.endometriosis
select the correct answer using the code below:
a.1,2,&3
b.1& 2 only
c.2& 3 only
d.1& 3 only


66.Which one of the following is not an operation for uterine inversion?
a.’O’ Sullivan’s
b.Haultain’s
c.Spinelli’s
d.Fentoni’s


67.A 45 yr old woman comes with pap smear report of squamous metaplasia.What advice shud be given to her?
a.colposcopy
b.cervical biopsy
c.conozation
d.no treatment


68.Which one of the following is not charachteristic feature of bacterial vaginosis?
a.presence of clue cells
b.thick white discharge
c.vaginal Ph >4.5
d.fishy odour

69.Fetomaternal transfusion of fetal RBC’s in mother can be detected by which one of the following tests?
a.Direct coomb’s test
b.Kleihaur betke test
c.electrophorosis
d.indirext coomb’s test


70.Multiple pregnancy is not a/w an increased incidence of which one of the following?
a.hyperemesis gravidarum
b.congenital malformations
c.pregnancy induced hypertension
d.post date pregnancy

71.Sexcord stromal cell tumors do not include which one of the following?
a.granulosa cell tumor
b.theca cell tumor
c.arrhenoblastoma
d.brenner’s tumor

72.A case of choriocarcinoma 30 yr old having one child,presenting with growth in the uterus & single metastasis in lung(stageIII score 4).What wud be the appropriate treatment for her?
a.single agent chemotherapy
b.multiple agent chemotherapy
c.hysterectomy with single agent chemotherapy
d.hysterectomy with multiple agent chemotherapy


73.An unmarried 20 yr old girl has unilateral ovarian cyst of 7 into 8 cm.with CA125 at 500 mIU/ml.There are thick septa & papillation in cyst.On laprotomy,capsule is intact.Other ovary & viscera are normal.What is the appropriate surgery for her(along with staging procedure)?
a.ovarian cystectomy
b.salpingo-oophorectomy
c.hysterectomy with unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
d.panhysterectomy


74.Surgical staging is done for the following genital malignancies except:
a.ovarian malignancy
b.gestational trophoblastic neoplasm
c.endometrial carcinoma
d.F.tube malignancy


75.Which one of the following groups has only epithelial tumors of ovary?
a.serous cystadenoma,mucinous cystadenoma,endometroid carcinoma
b.mucinous cystadenoma,endometroid carcinoma,stromal cell carcinoma
c.endometroid carcinoma,brenner’s tumour,sex cord tumor
d.dermoid,endometroid tumor,mucinous cystadenoma


76.Which female genital malignancy is most common in pregnancy?
a.ovarian cancer
b.vaginal vulvar cancer
c.endometrial cancer
d.cervical cancer


77.A 34 yr old lady who has completed her family,shows a positive pap smear(C.I.N.III).What will be the further arrangement?
a.wertheim’s hysterectomy
b.ward mayo’s hysterectomy
c.simple abdominal hysterectomy
d.cervical conisation


78.At laprotomy for endometrial cancer the growth was found invading inner half of mypmetrium,rt ovary & upper part of vagina.What is the staging?
a.II b
b.IIIa
c.IIIb
d.Iva


79.Contraceptive efficacy is generally assessed by which one of the following methods?
a.pearl index
b.contraceptive effectiveness
c.use effectiveness
d.failure rate


80.Which one of the following antibiotics reduces effectiveness of oral contraceptive pills & may cause breakthrough bleeding?
a.doxycycline
b.penicilline
c.rifampicin
d.clindamycin


81.Which one of the following disinfecting procedure is preferred for disinfection of blankets,beds & books kept in a room?
a.formaldehyde fumigation
b.autoclaving
c.sprinking 70% alcohol
d.bleaching powder


82.Which of the following is a characteristic of a point source epidemic?
a.herd immunity regulates spread of cases
b.person to person transmission is seen
c.secondary wave of cases is always seen
d.all cases develop within one incubation period


83.While investigating an epidemic,search for more cases is continued till what period?
a.twice the incubation period of the disease since occurrence of the last case
b.thrice the incubation period of the disease since occurrence of the last case
c.longest incubation period for the disease
d.incubation period for the disease plus two standard deviations


84.In national immunization coverage evaluation surveys,what is the commonly used sampling method?
a.simple random sampling
b.systemic random sampling
c.stratified random sampling
d.cluster random sampling


85.Consider the following statements:
1.poliovirus is a retrovirus
2.man is the only reservoir of poliovirus
Which of the statements given above are/is correct?
a.1 only
b.2 only
c.both 1 & 2
c.none


86.Which one of the following tests is not used for checking quality of pastereurization of milk?
a.phosphatase test
b.standard plate count
c.coliform count
d.orthotoludine test


87.Milk is poor source of which of the following?
a.essential fatty acids
b.iron
c.vit-C
d.vit-A
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a.1&3
b.1&4
c.2&3
d.1&2


88.Which one of the following is categorised as a high risk pregnancy?
a.birth order 3
b.maternal ht 150 cm
c.twin pregnancy
d.blood group AB+ve

89.Among the causes of maternal mortality,which one of the following is the correct descending order due to which the maternal deaths occur in India?
a.haemorrhage,obstructed labour,abortion,sepsis
b.obstructed labour,haemorrhage,abortion,sepsis
c.sepsis,obstructed labour,abortion,haemorrhage
d.haemorrhage,sepsis,abortion,obstructed labour


90.What is the health indicator obtained by dividing body ht(in cm) by cube root of body wt(in kg)?
a.quetlet’s index
b.broca index
c.ponderal index
d.corpulence index


91.Use of combined pill is contraindicated in women with any of the following conditions except?
a.lactation
b.DM
c.thromboembolism
c.TB


92.Consider the following pairs:
contraceptive method preg.rate
1. condoms 2-14/HWY
2. Cu-T <1/HWY
c. oral pills 1-5/HWY

Which of the above apir is correctly matched?
a.1&2
b.1only
c.1&3
d.3only


93.Which one of the following is the level of residual free chlorine recommended for swimming pool water disinfection?
a.0.5 mg/lit
b.0.8 mg/lit
c.1 mg/lit
d.5 mg/lit


94.Which one of the following is the standard prescribed for setback(open space around the house)in rural areas?
a.built up area 1/3 & open space 2/3
b.built up area 2/5 & open space 3/5
c.built up area ½ & open space ½
d.built up area ¼ & open space ¾


95.Which of the following committees introduced the concept of multipurpose health worker?
a.bhore committee
b.jungalwala committee
c.kartar singh committee
d.mudliar committee


96.Which one of the following pair for water quality standard is correctly matched?
Parameter max.tolerance limit
a. Chlorides :50mg/lit
b. Nitrates :50mg/lit
c. hardness :50mg/lit
d. total dissolved solids :50mg/lit


97.Match list-I with list-II & select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
list-I list-II
(type of infection transmission) (example)
a.fomite transmission 1.rubella
b.cyclo-developmental 2.malaria
c.cyclo-propagative 3.filariasis
d.vertical transmission 4.typhoid

codes:
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 1 2 4 3
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 4 3 1 2


[snip].Which of the following is not a part of control measures for diptheria?
a.treatment of cases with erythromycin
b.treatment of carriers with antitoxin
c.isolation of cases
d.regular immunisation of under-fives

99.Dysphagia,diplopia,dysarthria are characteristic symptoms of food poisoning due to :
a.staph.aureus
b.cl.botulinum
c.s.typhimurium
d.b.cereus


100. “prepatent period” in lymphatic filariasis is defined as the time interval between inoculated of infective larvae & :
a.blockage of lymphatics
b.first appearance of detectabale microfilaria
c.developmental of lymphoedema
d.development of adult worm


101.sIn management of leprosy two years’duration is recommended for which of the following?
a.treatment of multibacillary cases
b.treatment of paucibacillary cases
c.surveillance after treatment in multibacillary cases
d.surveillance after treatment in paucibacillary cases

102.The oral typhoid vaccine(Ty 21a)in INDIA contains:
a.killed salmonalla typhi only
b.live attenuated s.typhi only
c.killed s.typhi & s.paratyphi A
d.live attenuated s.typhyi & s.paratyphi A


103.Consider the following pairs:
disease incubation period
1. polio 3-5 days
2. typhoid 10-14 days
3. yellow fever 8-12 days
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a.2 only
b.2&3
c.1&3
d.1 only


104.Which one of the following is a charachteristic of epidemiology of leishmaniasis in INDIA?
a.it does not occur at high altitudes
b.incubation period is 3-8 days
c.females are more affected
d.it is not a fatal disease


105.Match list-I with list-II & select the correct answer using the code given belowthe lists:
list-I list-II
(disease) (inheritance)
A. albinism 1.auto dominant
B. vit-Dresistant rickets 2.auto recessive
c. G6PD deficiency 3.sex linked dominant
d. neurofibromatosis 4.sex linked recessive

codes:
A B C D
a. 2 4 3 1
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 1 4 3 2
d. 1 3 4 2


106.Which one of the following is the correct chronological order in which the given acts were passed in INDIA?
a.Quarantine act,Vaccination act,Sarda act,Factory act
b.Quarantine act,Sarda act,Factory act,Vaccination act
c.Sarda act,Vaccination act,Quarantine act,Factory act
d.Vaccination act,Quarantine act,Factory act,Sarda act


107. “Social physician” concept was mooted by ?
a.Bhore committee
b.Chadha committee
c.Shrivastav committee
d.Kartar singh committee

108.Which one of the following is an indicator of operational efficiency for malaria control programme in india?
a.API(annual parasite incidence)
b.ABER(annual blood examionation rate)
c.AFI(annual falciparum incidence)
d.SPR(slide positivity rate)


109.Which of the following is a novel feature of RNTCP?
a.achieving 80% BCG coverage
b.achieving 85% detection rate
c.achieving 70% cure rate
d.involvement of NGOs


110.Match list-I with list-II & select the corrct answer using the code given below the lists:
list-I list-II
(diagrams) (type of data for which used)
A. bar diagram 1.continuous data
B. frequancy polygon 2.discrete data
C. line diagram 3.correlation data
D. scatter plot 4.trends of events
Code:
A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 2 4 1 3


111.Which one of the following pair is correctly amtched:
Vaccines Type
a. yellow fever killed
b. rubella killed
c. diphtheria live
d. mumps live


112.Among the following milk sources,which one is the correct sequence with decreasing fat content?
a.buffalo,cow,goat,human
b.buffalo,goat,cow,human
c.buffalo,human,cow,goat
d.buffalo,goat,human,cow


113.Under which level of prevention shud sentinel surveillance be categorised?
a.primordial prevention
b.primary prevention
c.secondary prevention
d.tertiary prevention


114.Inventory of material means which one of the following ?
a.list of item procured
b.stock disturbed during a period
c.the quantum of material ordered for
d.stock on hand at any given time


115.What is the reagent used in Horrock’s appratus for determing chlorine demand of water?
a.orthotoluidine
b.methylene blue
c.starch iodine indicator
d.sodium bicarbonate


DIRECTIONS:
The following 5 items consist of two following statements:one labelled as the Assertion(A) & the other as Reason®.You are to examine these two statements carefully & select the answetrs to these items using the codes below:
Codes:
a.both A & R are individually true & R is correct explaination of A
b.both A &R are individually true but R is not the correct explaination of A
c.A is true but R is false
d.A is false but R is true


116.Assertion:In tetanus,herd immunity doesn’t protect the individual
Reason: tetanus toxoid is a toxoid vaccine


117.Assertion:India is in the late expanding phase of the demographic cycle
Reason: birth rate in India is declining rapidly


118.Assertion:use of soap water & disinfectants shud be avoided in flushing where septic tank is used
Reason: In India septic tank are designed to allow a retention period of 24 hrs


119.Assertion:cases of carcinoma stomach have declined steadily over last 30 ys in affluent